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  4. and do not compel your slave girls to prostitution...

and do not compel your slave girls to prostitution...

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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    siki
    wrote on last edited by
    #60

    " After Their compulsion,"

    Come on Samia,

    The compulsion is an act which belongs to the one who is being compelled , not to the one who is dishing out,, and hence the one who is being compelled to do wrong , God will act Most merciful forgiving , because HE knows that she did not do that out of her own will,

    And the Guardian, who is being warned, not to do any such act, to gain the materials of this word, , Would god act as forgiving , most merciful?

    ,,,,,"And someone compels them , Then Allah after Their compulsion , will be Most merciful , forgiving,

    siki

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      nadeem
      wrote on last edited by
      #61

      Peace,

      Excuse me for barging in, but I just wanted to say that according to J. G. Hava's "Arabic-English dictionary", pg. 546, the meanings of "maid servant" and "prostitute, strumpet" are Syrian and Egyptian, respectively. The classical arabic meaning given is as "Fullgrown girl".

      Nadeem

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        siki
        wrote on last edited by
        #62

        Peace Nadeem

        I agree with you , "Fatayat" is a full grown girl, not a maid servant or a prostitute, but brother we have sorted this out quite a while ago , and there is no difference of opinion on this issue .

        siki

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          nadeem
          wrote on last edited by
          #63

          Peace Siki,

          Ouch - should've read the whole thread. Anyway, more proof can't hurt -)

          Nadeem

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            Samia
            wrote on last edited by
            #64

            Salaam siki

            What sin did those young girls do? What is God forgiving them for? What about the guardian who compelled them?

            I agree that linguistically a pronoun suffixed to a verbal noun can either be the subject or the direct object of the verb. We already know that the subject who did the compelling is the guardian, so the only explanation of the suffixed pronoun is that it is te direct object. God is not forgiving the girls but the compulsion.

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              siki
              wrote on last edited by
              #65

              My Dear Dear Sister , Sholom

              You know, i am preparing to launch that "Rocket" containing, "The good old 3 worded Red sentence", again at you. So i better run &, and find a hardened shelter for myself . Just in case, you return the favour with an equal Bang. jedi

              Ok, ok, Cease Fire, handshake

              ;D ;D To tell you the truth sis, hmm lately i have started to comprehend the thread titled, " Why didn't God send any female Messengers". >D >D

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                Samia
                wrote on last edited by
                #66

                My Dear Dear Sister , Sholom

                You know, i am preparing to launch that "Rocket" containing, "The good old 3 worded Red sentence", again at you. So i better run &, and find a hardened shelter for myself . Just in case, you return the favour with an equal Bang. jedi

                Ok, ok, Cease Fire, handshake

                ;D ;D To tell you the truth sis, hmm lately i have started to comprehend the thread titled, " Why didn't God send any female Messengers". >D >D

                HEHEHE! Don't worry, I am very peaceful voodoo

                And I know why God did not send women messengers He has to send a messenge that is not just for the elites peace

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                  ayman
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #67

                  Peace everyone,

                  I thought this thread needed a bump too like the "mohsanat" and "ma malakat aymanakum" threads.

                  Peace,

                  Ayman

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                    Fahad1
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #68

                    Salaam alaikum.

                    In the following verses, nisaa' (women) include men
                    443; 56

                    Do you have any other such verse in mind that you can point out? thanks.

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                      Samia
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #69

                      Salaam alaikum.

                      Do you have any other such verse in mind that you can point out? thanks.

                      Verse 4127 explicitly details who the nisaa' are, and they are not all females.

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                        Fahad1
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #70

                        Still no mention of ar-rijaal here. Also an-nisa does not include al-wildan/children. Al-wildan are seperate from ar-rijaal and an-nisaa. (4/75, 4/9

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                          pvb
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #71

                          " Why didn't God send any female Messengers".

                          GOD did!!!

                          Exodus 15
                          20 Then Miriam the prophetess, Aaron's sister, took a tambourine in her hand, and all the women followed her, with tambourines and dancing. 21 Miriam sang to them
                          "Sing to the LORD,
                          for he is highly exalted.
                          The horse and its rider
                          he has hurled into the sea

                          Judges 4 & 5 Deborah, a prophet-judge, headed the army of ancient Israel.
                          2 Kings 2214; 2 Chronicles 3422 Huldah, a prophet, verified the authenticity of the "Book of the Law of the Lord given through Moses" - the Book of Deuteronomy. She triggered a religious renewal.
                          Acts 936 The author of Luke referred to a female disciple of Jesus by her Aramaic name Tabitha, who was also known by her Greek name Dorcas. She became sick had died; St. Peter brought her back to life.
                          Acts 218 Philip the evangelist had four unmarried daughters who were prophets.
                          Philippians 42 Paul refers to two women, Euodia and Syntyche, as his co-workers who were active evangelicals, spreading the gospel.
                          Romans 161 Paul refers to Phoebe as a minister or deacon of the church at Cenchrea. The Greek word which describes her function is "diakonos" which means literally "official servant." She is the only deacon in the Bible to be identified by name. Some translations say deaconess; others try to obscure her position by mistranslating the Greek as a simple "servant" or "helper". Paul later refers to Phoebe as a woman, calling her "our sister." This prevented later church leaders from hiding her gender as they did with Junia in Romans 167 below - by changing her name and implying that she was a man.
                          Romans 163 Paul refers to Priscilla as another of his "fellow workers in Christ Jesus" (NIV) Other translations refer to her as a "co-worker". But other translations attempt to downgrade her status by calling her a "helper". The original Greek word is "synergoi", which literally means "fellow worker" or "colleague." 1 It is worth noting that Paul refers to Priscilla and her husband as "Priscilla and Aquila" in this passage and as "Aquila and Priscilla" in 1 Corinthians 1619. It would appear that the order is not important to Paul. As in Galatians 328, he apparently believed that there is no distinction among those who have been baptized into Christ between male and female.
                          Romans 167 Paul refers to a male apostle, Andronicus, and a female apostle, Junia, as "outstanding among the apostles" (NIV) Every Greek and Latin church Father until Giles of Rome (circa 1000 CE) acknowledged that Junia was a woman.

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                            Fahad1
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #72

                            Quote from siki on June 20, 2007, 072542 AM
                            If a Guardian , deceitfully , forces a Fatayat for a wrong ( which you think is , lets say forced marriage to an old rich man) , to gain materials of this word, would God be acting as Most Merciful, Forgiving ?

                            Yes. I know several young women who were forced to marry an older rich man and who grew to love him and ended up living happily ever after. On the other hand, I also know many young women who married the guy of their dreams that they loved deeply and then the dreams turned to nightmares and they were divorced a few years (and in some cases a few weeks) later. So sometimes those arranged marriages where the woman is compelled to marry someone by her parents do work out fine.

                            This still does not answer the question what lawful limits would the fatayat be seeking to exceed if al-bighaa is referring to "forced marriage".

                            (bighaa meaning seeking something unlawfully)

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                              Samia
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #73

                              Still no mention of ar-rijaal here. Also an-nisa does not include al-wildan/children. Al-wildan are seperate from ar-rijaal and an-nisaa. (4/75, 4/9

                              Either I did not understand your initial question or I do not understand this post of yours. What do "alwildan" and "alyatama" do in an explanation about "alnisaa'"? Here's the verse

                              "They ask your legal instruction concerning the "nisaa'". Say God instructs you concerning them and what is recited to you in the book concerning

                              1. fatherless children of women whom you do not pay what's prescribed for them and want to marry them,
                              2. and the children who are vulnerable, weak and oppressed,
                              3. and the orphans that you should stand firm for their justice.
                                All that you do of goodness God is all aware of it).

                              1,2 and 3 are the sub-categories of "nisaa'".
                              Yes, there is no rijaal in this verse. Why should there be? It's about "nisaa' the vulnerable". But it does include males. When a verse speaks of "rijaal", this word includes females

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                                Fahad1
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #74

                                Either I did not understand your initial question or I do not understand this post of yours. What do "alwildan" and "alyatama" do in an explanation about "alnisaa'"? Here's the verse

                                "They ask your legal instruction concerning the "nisaa'". Say God instructs you concerning them and what is recited to you in the book concerning

                                1. fatherless children of women whom you do not pay what's prescribed for them and want to marry them,
                                2. and the children who are vulnerable, weak and oppressed,
                                3. and the orphans that you should stand firm for their justice.
                                  All that you do of goodness God is all aware of it).

                                1,2 and 3 are the sub-categories of "nisaa'".

                                Yes 'God instructs you concerning THEM as well as what is recited to you in the book concerning...'

                                Only the "hunna/them" is referring to the nisaa. The rest(1,2 and 3) are distinctly mentioned and are not sub-categories of nisaa, as wildan/children are distinct from rijaal/men and nisaa/women(4/75, 4/9, and are not counted among an-naas(group of rijaalan and nisaa'an, 4/1)

                                Yes, there is no rijaal in this verse. Why should there be? It's about "nisaa' the vulnerable". But it does include males. When a verse speaks of "rijaal", this word includes females

                                Nisaa can possess masculine traits, and rijaal can possess feminine traits(42/49-50), but rijaal cannot include nisaa, or vice versa. Rijaal and Nisaa are distinct from each other. Wildan can be male/zakr or/and female/unsa(3/36, 49/50), but cannot be rijaal/men or nisaa/women. Wildan are distinct from rijaal and nisaa.

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                                  Samia
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #75

                                  Yes 'God instructs you concerning THEM as well as what is recited to you in the book concerning...'

                                  Where's "as well" in the verse? If it were there, yes I would agree with you.
                                  Moreover, they pose a question regarding nisa'. Why? Because they want to know who are those nisaa'. They did not ask about wildaan nor yatamaa. Logically, if the answer about nisaa' leads to mentioning other categories, then there's a link. If I ask about meat, would you mention meat AND fruit? If I ask about something and your answer s meat and fruit, then by logic I am asking about food or shopping for example.

                                  The rest(1,2 and 3) are distinctly mentioned and are not sub-categories of nisaa, as wildan/children are distinct from rijaal/men and nisaa/women(4/75, 4/9, and are not counted among an-naas(group of rijaalan and nisaa'an, 4/1)

                                  These two verses mention other categories in general. They do not speak of a specific category of women (mothers of fatherless children), nor of fatherless children themselves.
                                  Moreover, I did not say nisaa' or rijaal never mean women or men. What I say is that we should be very careful in automatically translating rijaal and nisaa' as men and women.

                                  rijaal cannot include nisaa, or vice versa.

                                  rijaal including nisaa' 2227
                                  nisaa' including rijaal 4 43
                                  nisaa' including rijaal and rijaal including nissa' 434

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                                    Fahad1
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #76

                                    Yes 'God instructs you concerning THEM as well as what is recited to you in the book concerning...'

                                    Where's "as well" in the verse? If it were there, yes I would agree with you.

                                    I am translating it as "as well as" to show you yatama and wildan are other than the nisaa. Can it not mean "as well as"?

                                    Moreover, they pose a question regarding nisa'. Why? Because they want to know who are those nisaa'.

                                    They are not asking WHO the nisaa are, or what categories are included among nisaa. They are asking a fatwa/"legal instruction" ABOUT women, NOT about the MEANING of the word "nisaa" or who is included among women.

                                    They did not ask about wildaan nor yatama. Logically, if the answer about nisaa' leads to mentioning other categories, then there's a link.

                                    What kind of a link?! The link would be that the orphans and children may be related to women. It says yatama OF the nisaa. It means yatama themselves are not nisaa. THAT'S logical. It means yatama are related to the nisaa, that is why yatama and wlidan are mentioned in a fatwa about nisaa. But children related to women don't become women themselves, they don't count among the women!

                                    If I ask about meat, would you mention meat AND fruit? If I ask about something and your answer s meat and fruit, then by logic I am asking about food or shopping for example.

                                    What if I DO mention meat AND fruit? Does fruit become meat then?! Would my answer change your question?!

                                    The rest(1,2 and 3) are distinctly mentioned and are not sub-categories of nisaa, as wildan/children are distinct from rijaal/men and nisaa/women(4/75, 4/9, and are not counted among an-naas(group of rijaalan and nisaa'an, 4/1)

                                    These two verses mention other categories in general. They do not speak of a specific category of women (mothers of fatherless children), nor of fatherless children themselves.

                                    Mentioned in general? So what? Should fatherless children be counted among women, or motherless children among men?

                                    Moreover, I did not say nisaa' or rijaal never mean women or men. What I say is that we should be very careful in automatically translating rijaal and nisaa' as men and women.

                                    Ok. Lets be very careful. 4/1 speaks about the rijaalan and nisaa'an of the world. Whatever meaning fits here, fits everywhere else. And the meaning here is not "invulnerable and vulnerable" but "men and and women".

                                    rijaal cannot include nisaa, or vice versa.

                                    rijaal including nisaa' 2227
                                    nisaa' including rijaal 4 43

                                    How?! If you think a verse should be about both men AND women, but the verse mentions only men, would you start including women among men just to suit your wishful thinking? Meat AND fruit?!

                                    nisaa' including rijaal and rijaal including nissa' 434

                                    Oh, come on!

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                                      Samia
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #77

                                      I am translating it as "as well as" to show you yatama and wildan are other than the nisaa. Can it not mean "as well as"?

                                      As well is a word on its own and of course it changes the meaning. You cannot just insert "as well" so as to fit your understanding.

                                      They are not asking WHO the nisaa are, or what categories are included among nisaa. They are asking a fatwa/"legal instruction" ABOUT women, NOT about the MEANING of the word "nisaa" or who is included among women.

                                      That makes no difference. Let me rephrase They ask you for a fatwa concerning nisaa'. Here's the fatwa concerning mothers of fatherless children do such and such (or don't do such and such); vulnerable children (do such and such)and fatherless children(do such and such). So he is given a fatwa concerning all these in response for a fatwa concerning nisaa'.

                                      What kind of a link?! The link would be that the orphans and children may be related to women. It says yatama OF the nisaa. It means yatama themselves are not nisaa. THAT'S logical. It means yatama are related to the nisaa, that is why yatama and wlidan are mentioned in a fatwa about nisaa. But children related to women don't become women themselves, they don't count among the women!

                                      No. The first category is about the mothers (of fatherless children) whom you want to marry. The second category is about vulnerable children (not necessarily fatherless and are not necessarily related to women. Maybe their mother is dead! They are at least children who have fathers. The third category is about the fatherless children themselves, not necessarily of mohers being married. Three different categories with three different needs. All under a fatwa concerning nisaa'.

                                      What if I DO mention meat AND fruit? Does fruit become meat then?! Would my answer change your question?!

                                      No it will not be meat. And your answer will not change my question, but will make it looks like meaningless to you, and we will be like two deaf people having a chat.

                                      Mentioned in general? So what? Should fatherless children be counted among women, or motherless children among men?

                                      Is the problem (in general)? Remove it. I did not understand the rest of your potest. I did not say, nor did I mean, anything of what you are talking about.

                                      Ok. Lets be very careful. 4/1 speaks about the rijaalan and nisaa'an of the world. Whatever meaning fits here, fits everywhere else. And the meaning here is not "invulnerable and vulnerable" but "men and and women".

                                      According to the general knowledge, who are more numerous throughout history and till now men or women? Here's a post by Arnab on this verse

                                      To those who believe (contrary to the evidence presented in EVERY dictionary) that rajul means man and nisa means woman

                                      Don't you find it odd that there is nothing to indicate what a nisa can do for themselves? They simply have to rely on the "goodness" of the community.

                                      This would mean that the nisa has no control over their fate or their lives (in any way according to understanding Quran in this way). Their only recourse is to depend on those around them.

                                      But the TRUTH is it is NOT like that. There are nisa's all around us (the one's wounded, ill, or in some way incapable of doing what most of us are capable of). This is why we must WASH if we have touched them during ablution.

                                      Remember 41 where it says .....and we spread forth from them A GREAT NUMBER of rajul and nisa. Rajul is designated a great number but not nisa...if this verse is to be understood as women and men then it is an absolute lie (which I do not believe) because there are MANY MORE women in the world than men.

                                      The one's active in their community, going to work, or school are the rajul (that is most people).

                                      The rajul are to take care of those who are postponed.

                                      There are times in most people's life where they are either rajul or nisa.....
                                      when ill or wounded....they are nisa....and rajul must take care of them.
                                      When they recover they are once again rajul.

                                      rijaal including nisaa' 2227
                                      nisaa' including rijaal 4 43

                                      How?! If you think a verse should be about both men AND women, but the verse mentions only men, would you start including women among men just to suit your wishful thinking? Meat AND fruit?!

                                      Oh, come on!

                                      Have you read these verses? Do you really believe that they talk about "men"? Then, women are not supposed to make hajj (2227), nor are they demanded to wash after intercourse (443). OH, COME ON!!

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                                        Fahad1
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #78

                                        What kind of a link?! The link would be that the orphans and children may be related to women. It says yatama OF the nisaa. It means yatama themselves are not nisaa. THAT'S logical. It means yatama are related to the nisaa, that is why yatama and wlidan are mentioned in a fatwa about nisaa. But children related to women don't become women themselves, they don't count among the women!

                                        No. The first category is about the mothers (of fatherless children) whom you want to marry. The second category is about vulnerable children (not necessarily fatherless and are not necessarily related to women. Maybe their mother is dead! They are at least children who have fathers. The third category is about the fatherless children themselves, not necessarily of mohers being married. Three different categories with three different needs. All under a fatwa concerning nisaa'.

                                        Ok. They are under the fatwa about nisaa. I agree so far. What I disagree with is that they are sub-categories of nisaa because

                                        1. yatama are OF nisaa(hence not same as),
                                        2. and wildan are distinct from and are not counted among nisaa. (as in the verses I had already referred to)

                                        Thats how I see it.

                                        (I will explain more below.)

                                        What if I DO mention meat AND fruit? Does fruit become meat then?! Would my answer change your question?!

                                        No it will not be meat. And your answer will not change my question, but will make it looks like meaningless to you, and we will be like two deaf people having a chat.

                                        Let's see if thats true.

                                        Chapter 2/217 They ask thee about fighting in the Sacred Month. Say, `Fighting therein is a heinous thing, but

                                        1)to hinder men from the way of Allah,
                                        2)and to be ungrateful to HIM,
                                        3)and to hinder men from the Sacred Mosque,
                                        4)and to turn out its people therefrom,

                                        is more heinous in the sight of Allah;

                                        Now, going by your logic, if 1,2,3 and 4 are sub-categories of 'fighting in the sacred months', how can the sub-categories be worse/more heinous than the category itself?!

                                        If these are not sub-categories, does the communication in 2/217 become meaningless? Is the communication between the deaf? Or is it simply that Allah knew better what else to tell us about besides 'fighting in the sacred months?

                                        Ok. Lets be very careful. 4/1 speaks about the rijaalan and nisaa'an of the world. Whatever meaning fits here, fits everywhere else. And the meaning here is not "invulnerable and vulnerable" but "men and and women".

                                        According to the general knowledge, who are more numerous throughout history and till now men or women? Here's a post by Arnab on this verse

                                        To those who believe (contrary to the evidence presented in EVERY dictionary) that rajul means man and nisa means woman

                                        Don't you find it odd that there is nothing to indicate what a nisa can do for themselves? They simply have to rely on the "goodness" of the community.

                                        This would mean that the nisa has no control over their fate or their lives (in any way according to understanding Quran in this way). Their only recourse is to depend on those around them.

                                        But the TRUTH is it is NOT like that. There are nisa's all around us (the one's wounded, ill, or in some way incapable of doing what most of us are capable of). This is why we must WASH if we have touched them during ablution.

                                        Remember 41 where it says .....and we spread forth from them A GREAT NUMBER of rajul and nisa. Rajul is designated a great number but not nisa...if this verse is to be understood as women and men then it is an absolute lie (which I do not believe) because there are MANY MORE women in the world than men.

                                        The one's active in their community, going to work, or school are the rajul (that is most people).

                                        The rajul are to take care of those who are postponed.

                                        There are times in most people's life where they are either rajul or nisa.....
                                        when ill or wounded....they are nisa....and rajul must take care of them.
                                        When they recover they are once again rajul.

                                        Oh man...

                                        Ok. I will respond to this. This is going to be fun.

                                        Have you read these verses? Do you really believe that they talk about "men"? Then, women are not supposed to make hajj (2227), nor are they demanded to wash after intercourse (443). OH, COME ON!!

                                        Yes I REALLY believe that they talk about men, because I have eyes and I can read throughout the Quran that "rijaal" and "nisaa" are used to mean "men" and "women" respectively!

                                        Whether women are supposed to make hajj etc or not, we can look that up elsewhere in the Quran. But these particular verses are addressed to men, much to your dislike.

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                                          Samia
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #79

                                          Ok. They are under the fatwa about nisaa.

                                          That's enough for me. How you understand this and twist it is your problem, not mine.

                                          Chapter 2/217 They ask thee about fighting in the Sacred Month. Say, `Fighting therein is a heinous thing, but

                                          1)to hinder men from the way of Allah,
                                          2)and to be ungrateful to HIM,
                                          3)and to hinder men from the Sacred Mosque,
                                          4)and to turn out its people therefrom,

                                          is more heinous in the sight of Allah;

                                          If you correctly translate this verse, you will see that it is not similar to verse 41. It dos not even start like verse 41.

                                          Yes I REALLY believe that they talk about men, because I have eyes and I can read throughout the Quran that "rijaal" and "nisaa" are used to mean "men" and "women" respectively!

                                          Whether women are supposed to make hajj etc or not, we can look that up elsewhere in the Quran. But these particular verses are addressed to men, much to your dislike.

                                          If you get in a discussion presuming that I understand verses according to my likes and dislikes, there's no point in discussing with you. Why would I dislike that women be commanded to make hajj or to wash after intercourse or, according to your understanding, should not do many things? I just want to draw to your attention that God mentioned two women (not two men or even one man and one woman) as an example of the believers (mu'mineen, m.p.) and two women as an example of the kafireen, (m.p). So, whenever you read an address to either group, or a commandment to either group, remember that there are at least two females in it. That's how to read the qur'aan (for people who have common sense, who reflect, who have brain and reasoning, NEVER for people who have eyes)

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