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  4. What is the difference between "Nissa, Amraat and Azwaj"

What is the difference between "Nissa, Amraat and Azwaj"

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • M Offline
    M Offline
    Muslimtruthrevealed
    wrote on last edited by
    #88

    azwajakum / azwajahum again means mates, its plural. Kum / Hum are masculine plural pronouns, when attached to a noun or verb they refer to BOTH males and Females.

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    • U Offline
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      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #89

      This will unfortunately be my last post on free-minds for a while. It?s been wonderful knowing everyone these past two years and would have liked to meet in person/share a smile ? perhaps one day...

      Salam,

      Sorry to here that Nun de plume. You will be missed.

      Salam,
      Arnab

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      • S Offline
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        siki
        wrote on last edited by
        #90

        412 In what your wives (Azwajukum) leave, your share is a half, if they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, if ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eighth; after payment of legacies and debts. ....

        So, it means that zoaj/azwaj are only wife/wives. The term does not convey spouse/spouses.

        siki

        Any comments from anybody against this understanding (other than MTR)

        siki

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        • S Offline
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          siki
          wrote on last edited by
          #91

          This will unfortunately be my last post on free-minds for a while. It?s been wonderful knowing everyone these past two years and would have liked to meet in person/share a smile ? perhaps one day...

          What happened? are you moving to some remote village?
          siki

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          • M Offline
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            Muslimtruthrevealed
            wrote on last edited by
            #92

            Any comments from anybody against this understanding (other than MTR)

            siki

            Allah, subhana wata ala is 'against' any 'understanding' that perverts and corrupts Allah's kalam.

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            • U Offline
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              unknownuser
              wrote on last edited by
              #93

              Allah, subhana wata ala is 'against' any 'understanding' that perverts and corrupts Allah's kalam.

              hmm hmm where to begin....

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              • F Offline
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                farida
                wrote on last edited by
                #94

                This will unfortunately be my last post on free-minds for a while. It?s been wonderful knowing everyone these past two years and would have liked to meet in person/share a smile ? perhaps one day...

                In the blessed and ease treed paradises
                On sofas facing each other
                Being circled around on them with a cup to drink wine from goodness
                White delight to the drinking
                Intoxication not in it, nor they be exhausted from it
                And at them the eye's confining big beautiful eyes...

                Peace

                Salaam Nun,

                I am sure you have valid reason to take a leave from this forum for a while but it is making me sad. It is making me sad as you know how much I have valued your contributions and frequently called for your help, especially when the subject involved complicated mathemitical calulations or deep research.
                My brother I pray that God answer all your prayers and, though it is unlikely, that I may meet you in person as we live in different corners of the world, but then there is also the beyond, so I hope to meet you one day in the best of surroundings.
                You are such a genuine person and its doesn't take much to reccognise a fellow believer, so it would be nice to hear from you on PM.

                Best of my regards to you and your family.

                Farida

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                • B Offline
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                  bkanwar2
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #95

                  Im sorry, but you are all over the place. No I am trying to piece it together.

                  One is an active participle the other a 'broken plural' noun, in essence one a verb the other a noun

                  Are you implying that Rajul is a verb and Rijal a broken plural of a noun. If it is so, please explain the meanings of Rajul as a verb and give singular of broken plural noun Rijal.

                  As regards Alif with Medda in Nissa. It is the last Alif in nissa and not in begining. Please see the rule for making/changing gender of a noun to feminine. Alif with Medda and Ayn in the end is needed. Please see below Wright's Grammar most respected in English. Actual page of book is Vol 1 pp179. Scaned PDF page 97/166 so please scroll down to 97/166.

                  http//www.ghazali.org/arabic/WrightArabicGrammarVol1.pdf
                  Your are just using most likely Arabic online as referance, below, hence not comprehending what I am saying.

                  http//arabic.tripod.com/Nouns1d.htm#Feminine%20Markers

                  Please look at both then comment. Thanks.

                  Badar

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                  • M Offline
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                    Muslimtruthrevealed
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #96

                    Badar, Again, your NOT accepting the grammatical reference. I gave you the arabic grammatical term for BOTH 'extended alif' / and 'broken plural' /

                    Badar, again, Alif madda, , is used when a sustained 'a' sound occurs at the BEGINNING of a word

                    the 'extended alif' / is at the END of the word

                    Again, Rijal is an ACTIVE PARTICIPLE, denotes an action associated with a verb, which indicates you need a doer & subject/object of the action or activity

                    Once again, Rijalan / is a 'broken plural' / NOUN not a verb. without the feminine marker its masculine and means 'Men', period.

                    There is NO Arabic feminine word using the root construct of Rijal or Rajul its NOT in the Quran, its NOT used in Modern Standard Arabic, it MAY exist in certain Arabic dialects.

                    Again, it's NOT grammatically referenced in the Quran.

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                    • B Offline
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                      bkanwar2
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #97

                      Thanks brother for your reply. However, it seems you did not bother to look at referance from Wright. With your knowledge of grammar in view I did not think that I needed to explain the difference between and alif with Medda. But may be you have accepted "Arabic on line and Dr. Abdullah Abbas Nadwi initial publication of "Learn The Language of The Holy Quran" as ultimate authority.

                      Finally in this part of verse 41 , which is the verb or action that denotes to? Thanks.

                      Badar

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                      • M Offline
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                        Muslimtruthrevealed
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #98

                        Thanks brother for your reply. However, it seems you did not bother to look at referance from Wright. With your knowledge of grammar in view I did not think that I needed to explain the difference between and alif with Medda. But may be you have accepted "Arabic on line and Dr. Abdullah Abbas Nadwi initial publication of "Learn The Language of The Holy Quran" as ultimate authority.

                        Finally in this part of verse 41 , which is the verb or action that denotes to? Thanks.

                        Badar

                        the Active Participle is NOT in Sura 4.1.

                        the Noun is in Sura 4.1, is nunation using tanwiinu alfatahati / , which makes the word indefinite.

                        Again, is a 'broken plural' with tanwiinu alfatahati / which indicates that the word is fully declinable, thus the gender of the noun in this case will match the gender of its singular Rajulun, meaning 'Man'.

                        Thus grammatically speaking, the Noun, in its fully declinable state, can not mean women or female.

                        Research 'Declension'

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                        • B Offline
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                          bkanwar2
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #99

                          Thanks brother you have added something more to the mix about[ , let me do my research about it before responding.

                          While I do that, the rule about Alif WHEN it is properly considered female, states it be written as Alif with Madda on it followed by Ayan . In this case it becomes substansive and it is not called a letter, i.e., one does not prefix to it a word [. Based on this rule what do you make out of in 41. Thanks.

                          Badar

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                          • M Offline
                            M Offline
                            Muslimtruthrevealed
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #100

                            Thanks brother you have added something more to the mix about[ , let me do my research about it before responding.

                            While I do that, the rule about Alif WHEN it is properly considered female, states it be written as Alif with Madda on it followed by Ayan . In this case it becomes substansive and it is not called a letter, i.e., one does not prefix to it a word [. Based on this rule what do you make out of in 41. Thanks.

                            Badar

                            Badar, we have been through this several times Bro. does NOT Have alif-medda.

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                            • B Offline
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                              bkanwar2
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #101

                              Yes I know, it has not. Since it has no female marker and hence, can not be considered feminine by form. Therefore, does not stand for female/females.

                              Badar

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                              • M Offline
                                M Offline
                                Muslimtruthrevealed
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #102

                                Yes I know, it has not. Since it has no female marker and hence, can not be considered feminine by form. Therefore, does not stand for female/females.

                                Badar

                                confused Badar, is the FEMININE MARKER attached to thus it emphatically means 'Women'

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                                • B Offline
                                  B Offline
                                  bkanwar2
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #103

                                  Again, is a 'broken plural' with tanwiinu alfatahati / which indicates that the word is fully declinable. Please clearify this statement. Did you mean it is fully declinable or you meant it is fully declined. Thanks.

                                  Badar

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                                  • S Offline
                                    S Offline
                                    Samia
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #104

                                    confused Badar, is the FEMININE MARKER attached to thus it emphatically means 'Women'

                                    This rule applies to the singular, not the plural.

                                    How about, for example (scientists/people of knowledge; names; directors)?

                                    Thus grammatically speaking, the Noun, in its fully declinable state, can not mean women or female.

                                    What does grammar have to do in deciding the meaning of a word? confused
                                    What about what we have discussed earlier regarding this word? Why are you still insisting that it cannot be speaking of females?

                                    Yes I know, it has not. Since it has no female marker and hence, can not be considered feminine by form. Therefore, does not stand for female/females.

                                    This is not correct a deduction. A word with a feminine marker ( ) does not necessarily have a feminine meaning ( ). Example
                                    Aantara name of a mythical male warrier; exams/test (plural of imti7an , a masculine singular)

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                                    • B Offline
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                                      bkanwar2
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #105

                                      Sister, your comments are well acknowledged. There are exception to rules and I am ware of some. However, my discussion with MTR is specifically from this word in 41 and his contention of it being derivative of root and coverted from common gender noun to feminine by changing form by adding .

                                      Badar

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                                      • M Offline
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                                        Muslimtruthrevealed
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #106

                                        This rule applies to the singular, not the plural.

                                        How about, for example (scientists/people of knowledge; names; directors)?What does grammar have to do in deciding the meaning of a word? confused
                                        What about what we have discussed earlier regarding this word? Why are you still insisting that it cannot be speaking of females?
                                        This is not correct a deduction. A word with a feminine marker ( ) does not necessarily have a feminine meaning ( ). Example
                                        Aantara name of a mythical male warrier; exams/test (plural of imti7an , a masculine singular)

                                        is Singular NOT plural

                                        (hamzat with tanwiin dammah) is Plural

                                        @Samia, Im sorry, but the rules of declension decompose the plural word to its singular construct and meaning , Man.

                                        I have noticed throughout many of your very informative and insightful posts, that you, yourself use various grammatical constructs, rules, definitive s, actions, analysis, etc. in your determinations and arguments.

                                        I dont see why in this discussion that we should exclude grammatical morphology in our determinatives and definitives regarding the word .

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                                        • M Offline
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                                          Muslimtruthrevealed
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #107

                                          Assalaam Alaikum Samia

                                          Would you be so kind as to provide an example from the Quran, where Allah uses the triliteral root construct R-J-L in illustrating a feminine construct and reference?

                                          Perhaps you may wish to illustrate the application and example from the Quran by using the rules of declension that define the word Rajulan / Rajulun and/ or derivatives as referring to females and/or women

                                          Your previous example Al-Baqarah 2.239 So if you are in fear, then on foot /

                                          Unfortunately, did not suggest or infer that it is females or women (alone) that are being referenced by the word farijalan /

                                          farijalan (Verbal Noun or Active Participle(?), Haal Accusative, Nasb Case) to dispel, drive away worries, to give a sense of ease, to relieve, to relax, to comfort; ?A Dictionary of the Grammatical Analysis of the Holy Quran? by Tantawi Sura 2239;

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