Intercourse: Allowed During Fasting!
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Strange logic was in the context, "Now you are reading it to me, should I follow you to get response from Allah of my loving Him? We are reading a book. Its words mean only what they say
Just think over that for beings like us when we need contextual explanation for just two words we utter say, 'Strange logic' for better understanding, do you mean to say that the words of the Great Reading are just what they are? See hereunder the thesaurus you have used having distinctly different meanings
You the Messenger ask them then go and bring........... Can we take both the meanings as correct? If yes, then the whole meaning changes and the context changes too. This is the essence of Quran, that testifies that even if the seas turn to ink, and trees of the worlds become pens Allah's words will not be over. On the contrary like you believe, if they are not the words that fit to context in real time for each and everyone of 6 billion people contemporarily, then there is no guidance for the individual life and thus the scripture becomes void.
Next if you follow me When I say "No! Do not commit shirk by going to doctor! Believe in Allah alone and turn to Him in repentance," will you not get response from Allah of your loving Him? And will Allah not love me for saying this? Think over before you want to pen me down.
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Among the three things 2 are being consumed internally i.e., eating and drinking. But the third one is expending the waste which will over flow if not voided like urine and motion; and that which shall soil you if not evacuated when necessary. Reconsider now and relearn the ayat afresh. Here is how best we shall understand by the leave of Allah without the taint of hadith or the practice in vogue
Here is the very beginning of the ayat! It is permitted to be with your wives on the nights of fasting. Where is the question for this at all when the fasting begins only from the dawn and ends at dusk? This part of the ayat has been necessitated from Allah because the mischief mongers like the mullah-hadith propagandists, swearing by the prophet, threateningly enforced the falsehood, in the name of the prophet, upon the people that they could not have the relationship with their wives. With the first part of the ayat the confusion created by the hadith miscreants of all times is put to end.
Now comes the second part of the ayat relating to the day time "They are your garments and you are their garments." Garments are mostly essential only during the day time. You as husband and wife have to don each other the clothing with purity, removing and eliminating the lewdness as and when necessary, especially during the days of fasting. Such is the holiness Allah attributes to the relationship between the wife and husband as purifying and lawful. Each shall protect each other's dignity by being lawful to each other that they be free from any lewdness in the heart during the fasting period and don on each other the garment of self-esteem and dignity. Allah loves such purity at heart free from all indecencies especially during the fasting. But herein again the hadith mischief-mongers obstructed the straight path to purity, allowing lewdness to creep into the heart through abstention; and make us spend the days of fasting with pent-up emotions! This is no fasting at all for reasons obvious. Now comes Allah's dissatisfaction and contempt for such followers and the warning from Him goes thus
Allah is Aware that you were deceiving yourselves in this respect and He has turned in mercy toward you and forgiven you. So hold intercourse with them and seek the purity that which Allah hath ordained for you.
After this the rest of the parts of the ayat goes about eating and drinking. Intercourse is entirely a different matter; it is not like eating and drinking; but removal of bad emotions like voiding of urine and evacuating the bowels to remove the impurities from our body. intercourse is elimination of the bad emotions and best protection for the mind whose purity is of at most important for the completion of fasting.
Finally comes the guidance when you shall not be with your wives. This is, when you vow and determinedly begin your ihram i.e., being in remembrance of Allah alone for a day or two or three, abstain from your emotions seeking protection from Allah all the while.
but do not associate with your wives while ye are in retreat in the mosques. Mosques are not the places where you have family relations; so here the mosques are your houses. Allah regards your houses to be the mosques because you are in constant remembrance of Allah's Names and no other names are entertained. At this juncture 2 114 shall be remembered "In places for the worship of Allah, Allah's name should be celebrated." Now the final part of the ayat Those are Limits by Allah Approach them not. Approach them not stands here solely on this ground; but you can eat and drink; thus it is not fasting here.
The end of the ayat Thus doth Allah make clear His Signs to men that they may fear!
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Do you realize that your entire case is based on nothing? All you have presented thus far is your own opinions and interpretations. You have provided not even a single shred of historical evidence which proves your case that the Early Muslims used to have intercourse during the day in Ramadan. This is why the oppositions interpretation of 2187 holds, because they have historical documents (hadith) to argue for their interpretation (that the verse speicifies the only time during which intercourse is allowed i.e. the Night). While you have no evidence to support your own interpretations.
And dont start saying that the hadith is not allowed, because in this case the hadith is not adding any injunctions, so they are allowed. The injunction is clearly stated in the Quran (2187). Only through semantics can you make your case. This seems to be the preferred tactic of many here.
Salaam
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Do you realize that your entire case is based on nothing? All you have presented thus far is your own opinions and interpretations. You have provided not even a single shred of historical evidence which proves your case that the Early Muslims used to have intercourse during the day in Ramadan. This is why the oppositions interpretation of 2187 holds, because they have historical documents (hadith) to argue for their interpretation (that the verse speicifies the only time during which intercourse is allowed i.e. the Night). While you have no evidence to support your own interpretations.
And dont start saying that the hadith is not allowed, because in this case the hadith is not adding any injunctions, so they are allowed. The injunction is clearly stated in the Quran (2187). Only through semantics can you make your case. This seems to be the preferred tactic of many here.
Salaam
If my entire write up on 2 187 shall have to be based on the hadith, and if not it has no relevance at all. then what about Quran? How shall one have to believe the entire Quran? What and whose hadith or the historical evidence does Quran shall have to depend upon? There is nothing comparable to Quran! No historical evidence can touch it except that Allah narrates. Is Quran for thinking over and its verses are for pondering on or for disputing the Quran and its ayats with the so called historical evidence? History is 'his-story' or hearsay and nothing more to it. Your history has to be verified with the verses of Quran and not the reverse of it shall ever be practiced. It is unfortunate the hadith proponents have resorted to the reverse course; and still worse, they heavily bank their reliance on such off the course utterances.
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Salaam bro
If my entire write up on 2 187 shall have to be based on the hadith, and if not it has no relevance at all. then what about Quran? How shall one have to believe the entire Quran? What and whose hadith or the historical evidence does Quran shall have to depend upon? There is nothing comparable to Quran! No historical evidence can touch it except that Allah narrates. Is Quran for thinking over and its verses are for pondering on or for disputing the Quran and its ayats with the so called historical evidence? History is 'his-story' or hearsay and nothing more to it. Your history has to be verified with the verses of Quran and not the reverse of it shall ever be practiced. It is unfortunate the hadith proponents have resorted to the reverse course; and still worse, they heavily bank their reliance on such off the course utterances.
The injunction in 2187 is clear and it is well-established. If you challenge this, then the burden of proof is on you. So please present historical evidence that the early Muslims used to consider intercourse during the day permissible. The verse that you have provided actually makes much more sense if we read it in its conventional interpretation. Why would God specifically allow intercourse during the Night, if it was already allowed during the day anyway? The historical reason for this injunction were those Muslims who were forbidding themselves intercourse during the nights and the days, so God revealed this verse to allow them to have sexual relations during the night. You have to take verses in their proper context (this applies to the Quran as it does with everything else).
PeAcE
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Salaam bro
The injunction in 2187 is clear and it is well-established. If you challenge this, then the burden of proof is on you. So please present historical evidence that the early Muslims used to consider intercourse during the day permissible. The verse that you have provided actually makes much more sense if we read it in its conventional interpretation. Why would God specifically allow intercourse during the Night, if it was already allowed during the day anyway? The historical reason for this injunction were those Muslims who were forbidding themselves intercourse during the nights and the days, so God revealed this verse to allow them to have sexual relations during the night. You have to take verses in their proper context (this applies to the Quran as it does with everything else).
PeAcE
Salaam brother,
Please read reply
No. # 6 of this thread on the very first page for the answer to your query. I have reproduced it here.Among the three things 2 are being consumed internally i.e., eating and drinking. But the third one is expending the waste which will over flow if not voided like urine and motion; and that which shall soil you if not evacuated when necessary. Reconsider now and relearn the ayat afresh. Here is how best we shall understand by the leave of Allah without the taint of hadith or the practice in vogue
Here is the very beginning of the ayat! It is permitted to be with your wives on the nights of fasting. Where is the question for this at all when the fasting begins only from the dawn and ends at dusk? This part of the ayat has been necessitated from Allah because the mischief mongers like the mullah-hadith propagandists, swearing by the prophet, threateningly enforced the falsehood, in the name of the prophet, upon the people that they could not have the relationship with their wives. With the first part of the ayat the confusion created by the hadith miscreants of all times is put to end.
Now comes the second part of the ayat relating to the day time "They are your garments and you are their garments." Garments are mostly essential only during the day time. You as husband and wife have to don each other the clothing with purity, removing and eliminating the lewdness as and when necessary, especially during the days of fasting. Such is the holiness Allah attributes to the relationship between the wife and husband as purifying and lawful. Each shall protect each other's dignity by being lawful to each other that they be free from any lewdness in the heart during the fasting period and don on each other the garment of self-esteem and dignity. Allah loves such purity at heart free from all indecencies especially during the fasting. But herein again the hadith mischief-mongers obstructed the straight path to purity, allowing lewdness to creep into the heart through abstention; and make us spend the days of fasting with pent-up emotions! This is no fasting at all for reasons obvious. Now comes Allah's dissatisfaction and contempt for such followers and the warning from Him goes thus
Allah is Aware that you were deceiving yourselves in this respect and He has turned in mercy toward you and forgiven you. So hold intercourse with them and seek the purity that which Allah hath ordained for you.
After this the rest of the parts of the ayat goes about eating and drinking. Intercourse is entirely a different matter; it is not like eating and drinking; but removal of bad emotions like voiding of urine and evacuating the bowels to remove the impurities from our body. intercourse is elimination of the bad emotions and best protection for the mind whose purity is of at most important for the completion of fasting.
Finally comes the guidance when you shall not be with your wives. This is, when you vow and determinedly begin your ihram i.e., being in remembrance of Allah alone for a day or two or three, abstain from your emotions seeking protection from Allah all the while.
but do not associate with your wives while ye are in retreat in the mosques. Mosques are not the places where you have family relations; so here the mosques are your houses. Allah regards your houses to be the mosques because you are in constant remembrance of Allah's Names and no other names are entertained. At this juncture 2 114 shall be remembered "In places for the worship of Allah, Allah's name should be celebrated." Now the final part of the ayat Those are Limits by Allah Approach them not. Approach them not stands here solely on this ground; but you can eat and drink; thus it is not fasting here.
The end of the ayat Thus doth Allah make clear His Signs to men that they may fear!
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I understand bro, but I will warn you against relying on "reason" to understand religion, especially religious rituals... They are by definition, irrational things, and faith itself transcends logic. You can not decypher these things via reason. I used to believe, like you, that you can apply reason to religion... but I have recently proven to myself that you can not.
If you want me to recommend some philosophic literature that proves this, I will be happy to.
Salaam
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You rely on anything except believing your higher faculties. What is your take on the following?
25 73
Those who, when they are given the revelations of their God, they fall not there at as if they were deaf or blind;
47 24
Will they then not meditate on the Qur'an, or are there locks on the hearts?Brother I take your advice if your answer to the above does not let you down.
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47 24
Will they then not meditate on the Qur'an, or are there locks on the hearts?God has answered this question in the very beginning of the Quran Allah hath sealed their hearing and their hearts, and on their eyes there is a covering...
There are many places in the Quran in which God makes clear to us that guidance is not up to us (i.e. can not be arrived at by man's own cognitive capacity). We can not discover "truth" by ourselves, unless we are allowed to by God. Because any such notion of an objective "truth" will be, by definition, transcendent. And transcendent concepts are by definition, beyond human cognitive capacities, i.e. we can not rationalize them.
Allah guides whomever He wills. And He leaves in error whom He wills. This is why the Quran always speaks only to the believers. They are its only audience.
Salaam
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God has answered this question in the very beginning of the Quran
There are many places in the Quran in which God makes clear to us that guidance is not up to us (i.e. can not be arrived at by man's own cognitive capacity). We can not discover "truth" by ourselves, unless we are allowed to by God. Because any such notion of an objective "truth" will be, by definition, transcendent. And transcendent concepts are by definition, beyond human cognitive capacities, i.e. we can not rationalize them.
Salaam
Brother, you had not said anything about 25 73. I am awaiting eagerly for your reply so that I do not see in you any contradiction in understanding, which clarity in you then shall pave way for me to follow you. And with regard to your 27, before you jump on it there are verses from 2 1 to 2 6 wherein the criteria has been well founded for your conclusion as to who a believer is and who a rejecter is!
Next,
Allah guides whomever He wills. And He leaves in error whom He wills. This is why the Quran always speaks only to the believers. They are its only audience.
13 27 Lo! Allah sendeth whom He will astray, and guideth unto Himself all who turn unto Him.
Here I quote your verse Allah hath sealed their hearing and their hearts, and on their eyes there is a covering... Now please appropriate this verse with the verse above and give me your guidance. Will not Allah Guide me if I turn unto Him for all my needs? If this is my case, then am I right in being given the light by Allah? And Guided by Allah? Will it not satisfy Allah as I strive to see sense in His ayats and verify that every ayat is rational and thus are from Allah?What do you have to say against these? I welcome your Dawa.
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Brother you are missing the point. There are two separate issues here
#1 The fact is that if God is omnipotent and omnipresent (which He is) then your act (of seeking guidance) is itself not your own. Because you can not take credit for any guidance you have, or any guidance you get.
Once we understand this, only then can we understand the verses which you quoted here
25 73
Those who, when they are given the revelations of their God, they fall not there at as if they were deaf or blind;
47 24
Will they then not meditate on the Qur'an, or are there locks on the hearts?#2 These verses do not say that just because you have applied your own reason and understanding to the Quran you have (necessarily) come to the right interpretations. These verses do NOT guarantee perfect guidance to anyone and everyone who applies their reason to them. Because everyone is guided AND misguided by God. And those who are led astray by God, are led astray through the their cognitive faculties as well. Remember the verses in the Quran which talk about how those who are hypocrites are led ASTRAY by the verses of the Quran? And when they read them, their enmity increases? This is why I was cautioning you in placing too much faith in your own interpretations if they conflict and contradict established practices, as you have no guarantees that you are right. And it is better to be safe then sorry, right?
Lastly bro, I would like to make clear to you that I am not really doing "dawa" here. I am not asking you to "follow" me either. Because I am not presenting anything new to you. I am just explaining to you some basic concepts that are well known. And Allah knows best.
PeAcE
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Because everyone is guided AND misguided by God. And those who are led astray by God, are led astray through the their cognitive faculties as well. Remember the verses in the Quran which talk about how those who are hypocrites are led ASTRAY by the verses of the Quran? And when they read them, their enmity increases? This is why I was cautioning you in placing too much faith in your own interpretations if they conflict and contradict established practices, as you have no guarantees that you are right. And it is better to be safe then sorry, right?
The red part is also the part of what people call "established practices". What is the guarantee that the "established practices" are true? All the pagans put forward this as strong argument, should they be considered as innocent? Satan also asserted that Allah misguided him.
By giving example He lets (exposes) many astraying and with it guides many;since He does not let by it anyone remain neglectful/astraying, except the "Fasiqeen";
Fasiq is a one who is already a deviant, astray.
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Brother you are missing the point. There are two separate issues here
#1 The fact is that if God is omnipotent and omnipresent (which He is) then your act (of seeking guidance) is itself not your own. Because you can not take credit for any guidance you have, or any guidance you get.
Once we understand this, only then can we understand the verses which you quoted here
Brother is it true I missed my point as well as your point when I have not claimed credit over anything or boasted of anything to add to my credit? If no, in that case, is your above reply essential? Or are you prejudiced? Just I am trying to correct if you had misjudged any point of discussion in the course of this thread.
#2 These verses do not say that just because you have applied your own reason and understanding to the Quran you have (necessarily) come to the right interpretations. These verses do NOT guarantee perfect guidance to anyone and everyone who applies their reason to them.
Doesn't the first part of your above sentence fall squarely on the second part of your reply in the red and bold?
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Mazhar + drFazl
Salaam brothers
@ Mazhar
What is the guarantee that the "established practices" are true?
None whatsoever. You just have to weigh the evidence of each argument and see what holds more weight.
Satan also asserted that Allah misguided him.
Satan said that God had judged him as erring, could also mean that He caused him to remain disappointed.
Fasiq is a one who is already a deviant, astray.
As was Satan, as he was created with a defect, as all men are created imperfect. Only God is perfect, this is why we are ultimately dependent on Divine mercy. Because no one (not even the Prophets) can earn their way into heaven just with good deeds. Good deeds are finite, and paradise is infinite. You can never "earn" something infinite via the finite.
@ drFazl
Brother is it true I missed my point as well as your point when I have not claimed credit over anything or boasted of anything to add to my credit? If no, in that case, is your above reply essential? Or are you prejudiced? Just I am trying to correct if you had misjudged any point of discussion in the course of this thread.
Of course I am prejudiced. Everyone is prejudiced. No one is "objective".
Doesn't the first part of your above sentence fall squarely on the second part of your reply in the red and bold?
The part in red is not my own interpretation. But a clarification on the direct result of an existence controlled by an Omnipresent and Omnipotent God, who controls both guidance and misguidance. The point being when you interpret a passage in the Quran about intercourse during Ramadan, and your interpretation contradicts the established interpretation, you must have a very strong argument in support of your views (and not rely on semantics alone).
You make a lot of unfounded assertions in your argument, for example you say that abstinence is a negative action because it fuels impurity in the mind. And you base an entire argument on such assumptions. When at the end of the day such arguments are very weak. Because the whole point of maintaining abstinence (not just from intercourse but from all other earthly desires) is to fortify one's capabilities of patience. And patience is something which can only be earned through deprivation. It can never be willed into existence, because it is an experiential quality. You can never learn to ride a bike by reading a book on riding bikes. You have to actually ride a real bike in order to learn this activity. The same is the issue with patience. Abstinence teaches one to control one's passions and this increases one's patience. This is the reason why intercourse is not allowed while one is fasting.
Your entire argument is based on semantics (when you refuse to acknowledge the prohibition in the verse provided, when it is clearly outlining the time during Ramadan when intercourse is allowed i.e. the night) and at the same time you are applying your own reason in order to justify your argument, which can easily be countered by an equally valid opposing argument.
PeAcE
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Of course I am prejudiced. Everyone is prejudiced. No one is "objective".
Brother, I note this point in red and assert this prejudice had been your prime factor in all your communications thus far and shall be in your future posts. But interestingly you only believe in the prejudices as established notion by the general public i.e., the objectivity of ritual in the majority factor. Allah says not to follow the majority but follow what is clear to you, from Him. If you would you have a second look at what you have posted, here it is.
... and your interpretation contradicts the established interpretation, you must have a very strong argument in support of your views (and not rely on semantics alone).
From your own view point, all interpretations are prejudiced. But in your above statement you seem to believe whole heartedly all the established prejudices i.e., interpretations. Why in you is there such confused taking?
When it comes to reasoning it is only a sense of application of mind that is essential; the verses are for pondering and getting clear revelation by the leave of Allah - this is following Allah. This is the first part of often and repeatedly recited verse in the Quran - Follow Allah and Follow the Rasul, thus you will find no contradiction between Allah and Rasul. But without following Allah there is no way that you can follow rasul or the quran. Allah further commands us not to follow the majority notions however established the rituals are, never follow the ways upon which you found your forefathers or the majority of people around you. They follow the conjecture; and they are a people who follow the stories and his-tories.
From Quran what we know is that Allah admits exchange of views and forbids arguments - but you say I must bring 'strong' and worse still 'very strong' arguments! If I go the way you want me to go, then is it not that I go astray? Then you talk about semantic views. Semantic is the strong reliability on the conviction that we arrive at after careful examination and observation of the Truth which is subjective and transcending. Your view is otherwise. I need you to clarify on this! Do not you believe in the transcending Truth? The Truth is always subjective and the Quran is purely subjective and it is to be understood only in such way. Your views in this regard is also welcome to be exchanged.
#2 These verses do not say that just because you have applied your own reason and understanding to the Quran you have (necessarily) come to the right interpretations. These verses do NOT guarantee perfect guidance to anyone and everyone who applies their reason to them.
The part in red is not my own interpretation. But a clarification on the direct result of an existence controlled by an Omnipresent and Omnipotent God, who controls both guidance and misguidance. The point being when you interpret a passage in the Quran about intercourse during Ramadan,
Brother, I need your objectivity with regard to 'omni'-presence and potency of God in clear expression. And God controls both guidance and misguidance. How God misguides. And He is whimsical. Such ideas are mocking at God. Yet it seems well founded and well established notion perfectly fitting your conscience. I stop at this, awaiting you with eagerness.
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Salaam brothers
As was Satan, as he was created with a defect, as all men are created imperfect. Only God is perfect, this is why we are ultimately dependent on Divine mercy. Because no one (not even the Prophets) can earn their way into heaven just with good deeds. Good deeds are finite, and paradise is infinite. You can never "earn" something infinite via the finite.
Your soul i.e., the Ruh that Allah breathed in you is finite. And your mind is perfectly created to assess between the Truth and the falsehood; and between the good and the bad; and between the justice and the injustice. And the Ruh, the Furqaan is the criterion that differentiates between them and admonishes and give the glad tidings according to the leave of Allah. Allah says he created you and perfected you. You say contrary to Quran. Can you for my verification say that man was created imperfectly? He is weak; but not imperfect! He is hasty; but not without the ability to maintain patience! He falters; but he is not created without the criterion! He is inclined to follow evil; but not left out without His Protection. In short Allah is with Him if one keeps himself protected in a shape Allah had perfected him. If only he follows Allah and stay away from the hearsay his perfection is in no way shall be truncated. And further Allah says He has not wronged any one! But you say Allah's creation of man itself is wrong and imperfect. And also you misjudge Allah when you say He guides and misguides because He is Whimsical. I do not see Whimsical as among His Attributes or as one of His Most Beautiful Names.
Peace
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As was Satan, as he was created with a defect, as all men are created imperfect. Only God is perfect, this is why we are ultimately dependent on Divine mercy. Because no one (not even the Prophets) can earn their way into heaven just with good deeds. Good deeds are finite, and paradise is infinite. You can never "earn" something infinite via the finite.
This statement falls in the category,
Everything is created with sublime perfection. Paradise is created and is meant as abode for ORDINARY people who believed in Allah and His Messengers.
Red, it is a bussiness deal,
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drFazl + Mazhar
Salaam all
@ drFazl
Brother, I note this point in red and assert this prejudice had been your prime factor in all your communications thus far and shall be in your future posts. But interestingly you only believe in the prejudices as established notion by the general public i.e., the objectivity of ritual in the majority factor. Allah says not to follow the majority but follow what is clear to you, from Him. If you would you have a second look at what you have posted, here it is.
But you forget that just because your view does not follow the majority, does not make it objective. You have your own prejuduices, just like everyone else. And as for my own beliefs, very few of them are in line with majority opinion, I assure you.
From your own view point, all interpretations are prejudiced. But in your above statement you seem to believe whole heartedly all the established prejudices i.e., interpretations.
That is wrong, I do not believe "all" the established truisms. But in this case, your argument challenging the established interpretation does not carry much weight. That is why it is drawing criticism, not because it is just outside the norm.
From Quran what we know is that Allah admits exchange of views and forbids arguments - but you say I must bring 'strong' and worse still 'very strong' arguments!
If my wording displeased you, then I will just reword it I ask that you to prove your points with valid reasoning and historical precedence.
Semantic is the strong reliability on the conviction that we arrive at after careful examination and observation of the Truth which is subjective and transcending.
Major contradiction if the truth is trancending, then it can not be subjective. And "objectivity" exists only for God, as He determines truth and separates it from falsehood.
The Truth is always subjective and the Quran is purely subjective and it is to be understood only in such way. Your views in this regard is also welcome to be exchanged.
The Quran is objective because it is the word of God. But its understanding is subjective, but that does not mean that the Quran's truth is subjective as well. What this means is No 2 ways can be equally "right" if they contradict. There will always be one way which is more "right" then another. Because even though human understanding is subjective (i.e. flawed), truth is not.
Brother, I need your objectivity with regard to 'omni'-presence and potency of God in clear expression. And God controls both guidance and misguidance. How God misguides. And He is whimsical. Such ideas are mocking at God. Yet it seems well founded and well established notion perfectly fitting your conscience. I stop at this, awaiting you with eagerness.
Theodicy (the problem of evil) is only a problem for Catholics and Protestants, not for Muslims. The difference between us and them are
#1 We believe in an absolutley Trancending Deity (unlike Catholics)
#2 We do not believe in eternal damnation (unlike Protestants)But we do believe in predestination (i.e. fate).
Taken together this means that in Islam, according to the Quran, even though God created evil, "evil" is just a tool used to bring about good. As the ultimate good must be brought about because God Himself is absolutley Good. This is why we can dismiss "free will" without creating a problem of evil. Because for us, hell is not forever, and any evil which exists is only temporarily used by God to bring about an ultimate good.
I hope this clarifies things.
@ Mazhar
it is a bussiness deal,
It becomes a "deal" because God is merciful, not because He is a merchant. He allows us to exchange something finite for something infinite, because of His infinite mercy. What it does not show however is that we can earn something infinite through something finite... that makes no sense mathematically or logically.
PeAcE