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  4. 33:37 Prophet marrying with his adopted son's wife...

33:37 Prophet marrying with his adopted son's wife...

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  • M Offline
    M Offline
    Mazhar
    wrote on last edited by
    #37

    Are you Thereformer? ???

    same thought had peeped into my mind.

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      savage_carrot
      wrote on last edited by
      #38

      Are you Thereformer?

      Apparently, he had some issues with his account after he changed his email. He hasn't responded since then.

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      • T Offline
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        Thereformer1
        wrote on last edited by
        #39

        Are you Thereformer? ???

        Yes, I wanted to change my ancient adress email, but I did a mistake and I lost my account, but I asked "savage-carrot" and now it's ok , back .

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          Thereformer1
          wrote on last edited by
          #40

          Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
          And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.

          No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.

          about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it ?

          by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?

          the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .

          ah one moore thing don't pretend that you know Arabic language, because you still know nothing in it just some basics, they will not serve you with me .

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            Thereformer1
            wrote on last edited by
            #41

            same thought had peeped into my mind.

            Yes, I'm unique rotfl

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            • M Offline
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              Mazhar
              wrote on last edited by
              #42

              No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.

              It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.

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                Thereformer1
                wrote on last edited by
                #43

                It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.

                I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse

                http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif

                where is "" ?

                P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.

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                • M Offline
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                  Mazhar
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #44

                  about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it?

                  It is simply childish. A man who is already in the state of "Mask" association with his wife, to such a man there is no point to advise him "".

                  by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?
                  the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .

                  It is again childish since children do not know what Talaq/divorce is and how it gets concluded .

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                  • M Offline
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                    Mazhar
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #45

                    Refrormer disguised as Preacher No, I've followed the whole thread from beginning and I didn't want to interupt your conversations, why do you assume that I don't know the basic ABC of Arabic ?

                    This shows you deceptively lie also?

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                    • M Offline
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                      Mazhar
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #46

                      I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse

                      http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif

                      where is "" ?

                      P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.

                      Dont deceive yourself. The earlier context was this

                      Quote
                      I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see.

                      " " this is the right verse /what you wrote is wrong and it's distortion because there is "" not "fa" alone .

                      Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.

                      And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.

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                        Thereformer1
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #47

                        It is simply childish. A man who is already in the state of "Mask" association with his wife, to such a man there is no point to advise him "".
                        It is again childish since children do not know what Talaq/divorce is and how it gets concluded .

                        Look, you didn't answer my questions, you are just trying to avoid my accusations to you by adding things from your own desires to the verses, you are pretending that you know Arabic . You're just A liar and you want to deceive people and take them with in your dark path . ah one more thing you used hadith to interpret your verses and you advice people to not believe in hadith which make you an the big hypocrite in this forum.

                        ( (

                        { }

                        { }

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                        • M Offline
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                          Mazhar
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #48

                          Quote from Mazhar on April 05, 2010, 111245 PM
                          Thereat when Zaid

                          Reformer. first of all how do you know that Zaid is a name ?

                          Reformer! You have naively exposed yourself. You are NOT an Arab. You lied that your mom is Arab as well as Dad is Arab.

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                            Thereformer1
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #49

                            This shows you deceptively lie also?

                            No, I didn't, I've sent an email to the mod and I waited his respond and I didn't want to say that I'm thereformer1 because I think you guys will make bad statements about me. So as I see you did take bad statements whether it was by accident or not but let me remind you I don't care because I know myself .

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                              Thereformer1
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #50

                              Dont deceive yourself. The earlier context was this

                              please stop lying, you have distorted Quran , the verse from your website is without "" and you have put it here.

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                                Thereformer1
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #51

                                Reformer! You have naively exposed yourself. You are NOT an Arab. You lied that your mom is Arab as well as Dad is Arab.

                                hahahaha, You can ask members here, they will answer you .

                                and my question was right "how do you know that Zaid is a name "? it is also "" of the verb "" which means "to increase "

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                                • M Offline
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                                  Mazhar
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #52

                                  hahahaha, You can ask members here, they will answer you .

                                  and my question was right "how do you know that Zaid is a name "? it is also "" of the verb "" which means "to increase "

                                  Reconfirmed you are NOT Arab. Thanks.

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                                    Thereformer1
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #53

                                    Reconfirmed you are NOT Arab. Thanks.

                                    I'm Arabic, not Arab . and I don't need a foreigner he doesn't even pronouce word "" and he will not pronouce it in his life after all. so avoiding my question again .

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                                      Leyna
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #54

                                      I don't need a foreigner he doesn't even pronouce word "" and he will not pronouce it in his life after all.

                                      ??? Many non-Arabs are able to prounounce the .

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                                      • M Offline
                                        M Offline
                                        Mazhar
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #55

                                        ??? Many non-Arabs are able to prounounce the .

                                        It is consonant of my language also.

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                                          Thereformer1
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #56

                                          ??? Many non-Arabs are able to prounounce the .

                                          ok how? >>> this is a special letter in Arabic, no language in the world has this letter. the Arabic language called ("the language of "&quot or in Arabic " " .

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