33:37 Prophet marrying with his adopted son's wife...
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Quote from Mazhar on Yesterday at 111245 PM
And you had the fear in the heart of your heartwhat heart ? there is no heart in the verse, in fact there is "" and it is definitely not heart . so again where did you find that it is "heart of your heart"
.I promise to you that the day you remove the yokes Bukhari and company has put on you, you will conveniently understand and admit these simple things. Things are kept secret in the chests/hearts.
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/003.%20Aale%20Imran/temp09%203.118.gif
They yearned for what harmed you people; the grudge/hatred/resentment has already become apparent/evident from the utterances of their mouths, but what their chests are concealing is much greater than their already evident resentment. -
The other interesting thing I find in the verse is how the name "Zaid" is not used in the start but in the middle. Isn't it more appropriate to replace "him" with "Zaid" and Zaid with he?
And when you said to him to whom Allah had shown favor and to whom you had shown a favor Keep your wife to yourself and be careful of (your duty to) Allah; and you concealed in your soul what Allah would bring to light, and you feared men, and Allah had a greater right that you should fear Him. But when Zaid had accomplished his want of her, We gave her to you as a wife, so that there should be no difficulty for the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons, when they have accomplished their want of them; and Allah's command shall be performed.
And when you said to Zaid to whom Allah had shown favor and to whom you had shown a favor Keep your wife to yourself and be careful of (your duty to) Allah; and you concealed in your soul what Allah would bring to light, and you feared men, and Allah had a greater right that you should fear Him. But when he had accomplished his want of her, We gave her to you as a wife, so that there should be no difficulty for the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons, when they have accomplished their want of them; and Allah's command shall be performed.
What do you think Mazhar?
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Firstly he is the object of the verb plus his background is given, and then in nominative case he is the subject of the verb. This unimbiguously describes the background fact alongwith the actual happening which makes the reader even to visualise the actual scene of happening.
Another thing is that the Messenger being a great man does not say things like of having done favour to some body, and secondly it indicates that the fact was known publicly. Allah mentions the facts only so that we do not listen to conjectures of Bukhari like people.
But when Zaid had accomplished his want of her,
There is no such thing mentioned in the verse.
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No, sorry the word """ is before divorce, and this word is for trying to reform the situation between the woman and her husband . so basically the word talaq is not mentioned in the verse .
so answer the other questions ? you have failed in this one .
I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see.
Are you Thereformer? ???
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Are you Thereformer?
Apparently, he had some issues with his account after he changed his email. He hasn't responded since then.
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Are you Thereformer? ???
Yes, I wanted to change my ancient adress email, but I did a mistake and I lost my account, but I asked "savage-carrot" and now it's ok , back .
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Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.
about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it ?
by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?
the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .
ah one moore thing don't pretend that you know Arabic language, because you still know nothing in it just some basics, they will not serve you with me .
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same thought had peeped into my mind.
Yes, I'm unique rotfl
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No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.
It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.
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It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.
I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif
where is "" ?
P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.
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about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it?
It is simply childish. A man who is already in the state of "Mask" association with his wife, to such a man there is no point to advise him "".
by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?
the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .It is again childish since children do not know what Talaq/divorce is and how it gets concluded .
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I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif
where is "" ?
P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.
Dont deceive yourself. The earlier context was this
Quote
I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see." " this is the right verse /what you wrote is wrong and it's distortion because there is "" not "fa" alone .
Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.
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It is simply childish. A man who is already in the state of "Mask" association with his wife, to such a man there is no point to advise him "".
It is again childish since children do not know what Talaq/divorce is and how it gets concluded .Look, you didn't answer my questions, you are just trying to avoid my accusations to you by adding things from your own desires to the verses, you are pretending that you know Arabic . You're just A liar and you want to deceive people and take them with in your dark path . ah one more thing you used hadith to interpret your verses and you advice people to not believe in hadith which make you an the big hypocrite in this forum.
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This shows you deceptively lie also?
No, I didn't, I've sent an email to the mod and I waited his respond and I didn't want to say that I'm thereformer1 because I think you guys will make bad statements about me. So as I see you did take bad statements whether it was by accident or not but let me remind you I don't care because I know myself .
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Dont deceive yourself. The earlier context was this
please stop lying, you have distorted Quran , the verse from your website is without "" and you have put it here.
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Reformer! You have naively exposed yourself. You are NOT an Arab. You lied that your mom is Arab as well as Dad is Arab.
hahahaha, You can ask members here, they will answer you .
and my question was right "how do you know that Zaid is a name "? it is also "" of the verb "" which means "to increase "