33:37 Prophet marrying with his adopted son's wife...
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ok, let's take things seriousely, I'll prove that you used hadith to make your own interpretation which is still wrong, ah one more thing you have added a lot of things to the verse where did you find them?
Quote from Mazhar on Yesterday at 111245 PM
And when you were saying to the one,upon whom Allah had bestowed favour and you had bestowed favour upon him, after he had divorced his wife,"You hold back your divorcee wife to you being the first and desirable option given by Allah to husbands in case of divorce, and you be cautious and afraid of Allah"
After divorce, husband has two options, retain divorcee wife or let her go respectably after the completion of "restrictive period known and decided by the husband, and also counted by him".Reformer How do you know that the verse mentioned a "divorce" action ? where do you find this ? the verse is definitely no mentionning of any kind of divorce , there just "hold back your wife" , which is an advice and an order from the prophet . this thing is in hadith , so where did you find this information of divorce in Quran?
Had this "philsophical posture" observation from hadith ridden Pakistan or Indian national I would have felt happy in explaining to him. But finding this stupid question from an Arab certainly pains me.
The Best Person and The Best Arab is quoted being talking. He has used the imperative second person masculine verb " " to a married person and can be said only to a person who has divorced his wife. An Arab is he who does not use words unnecessarily and a stupid Arab is he who does not comprehend that with relation to wife is said only when a person has divorced his wife.
After divorce first thing is this
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.230%20m.gif
The Ta'laaq is permissible only on two occasions in married life.
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.229.gif
For reason of expiry of prescribed intervening period there is either mutual association or is partitionment/apartness in a respectable/decent/appropriate manner.Chapte2
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The Best Person and The Best Arab is quoted being talking. He has used the imperative second person masculine verb " " to a married person and can be said only to a person who has divorced his wife. An Arab is he who does not use words unnecessarily and a stupid Arab is he who does not comprehend that with relation to wife is said only when a person has divorced his wife.
No, sorry the word """ is before divorce, and this word is for trying to reform the situation between the woman and her husband . so basically the word talaq is not mentioned in the verse .
so answer the other questions ? you have failed in this one .
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Look, I've said before that I'll not respond to any word from you, so do the same or whatever you want but stay away from me. and just for your information the stroy is not from Bukhari.
you keep saying you will not respond to me but you do if only to be rude. I do not take any orders from you so I will continue to respond when I see you claiming rubbish regarding a prophet of Allah. Whether you respond or not is of no concern to me, your posts show yourself for what you are, which is NOT a person with any knowledge as you claim to have. Anyone reading can see that, it doesnt need me to point it out.I don't need to talk to a woman spends all her time in making cakes in Boards.
I have no idea at all what this is meant to mean, I can only assume you have something to say but are unable to voice it correctly. ???
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No, sorry the word """ is before divorce, and this word is for trying to reform the situation between the woman and her husband . so basically the word talaq is not mentioned in the verse .
so answer the other questions ? you have failed in this one .
Find little time to read the meanings of "Fa". You seem not to know the basic ABC of Arabic and have given a loud judgment. And now read this
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif
And when you husbands have pronounced divorce for your wives, for respectively determined intervening-duration/prescribed period for untying Nikkah, and they consequently have crossed over/elapsed/terminated/accomplished their respective appointed duration,http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231m.gif
then/after the expiry of appointed duration you husbands take them in your fold or see off/partition/apart them respectfully, in accordance with the known norms of society . -
Find little time to read the meanings of "Fa". You seem not to know the basic ABC of Arabic and have given a loud judgment. And now read this
No, I've followed the whole thread from beginning and I didn't want to interupt your conversations, why do you assume that I don't know the basic ABC of Arabic ?
I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see.
" " this is the right verse /what you wrote is wrong and it's distortion because there is "" not "fa" alone .
and for the meaning of the verse is too clear " " means take them back on equitable terms .
or
" " means or part with them on equitable terms; or leave them in their owns on equitable terms.
so this is another situation and it is different from the first one that stated in the thread, and the word "Amsaka" can take different meaning in the sentence .but how do you know that from the first verse that there is a Talaq situation, it's not mentioned . Don't use other verse to point out your clue because there will be always different meanings according to the sentence where the word in.
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I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see.
" " this is the right verse /what you wrote is wrong and it's distortion because there is "" not "fa" alone .
Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.
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Quote from Mazhar on Yesterday at 111245 PM
And you had the fear in the heart of your heartwhat heart ? there is no heart in the verse, in fact there is "" and it is definitely not heart . so again where did you find that it is "heart of your heart"
.I promise to you that the day you remove the yokes Bukhari and company has put on you, you will conveniently understand and admit these simple things. Things are kept secret in the chests/hearts.
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/003.%20Aale%20Imran/temp09%203.118.gif
They yearned for what harmed you people; the grudge/hatred/resentment has already become apparent/evident from the utterances of their mouths, but what their chests are concealing is much greater than their already evident resentment. -
The other interesting thing I find in the verse is how the name "Zaid" is not used in the start but in the middle. Isn't it more appropriate to replace "him" with "Zaid" and Zaid with he?
And when you said to him to whom Allah had shown favor and to whom you had shown a favor Keep your wife to yourself and be careful of (your duty to) Allah; and you concealed in your soul what Allah would bring to light, and you feared men, and Allah had a greater right that you should fear Him. But when Zaid had accomplished his want of her, We gave her to you as a wife, so that there should be no difficulty for the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons, when they have accomplished their want of them; and Allah's command shall be performed.
And when you said to Zaid to whom Allah had shown favor and to whom you had shown a favor Keep your wife to yourself and be careful of (your duty to) Allah; and you concealed in your soul what Allah would bring to light, and you feared men, and Allah had a greater right that you should fear Him. But when he had accomplished his want of her, We gave her to you as a wife, so that there should be no difficulty for the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons, when they have accomplished their want of them; and Allah's command shall be performed.
What do you think Mazhar?
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Firstly he is the object of the verb plus his background is given, and then in nominative case he is the subject of the verb. This unimbiguously describes the background fact alongwith the actual happening which makes the reader even to visualise the actual scene of happening.
Another thing is that the Messenger being a great man does not say things like of having done favour to some body, and secondly it indicates that the fact was known publicly. Allah mentions the facts only so that we do not listen to conjectures of Bukhari like people.
But when Zaid had accomplished his want of her,
There is no such thing mentioned in the verse.
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No, sorry the word """ is before divorce, and this word is for trying to reform the situation between the woman and her husband . so basically the word talaq is not mentioned in the verse .
so answer the other questions ? you have failed in this one .
I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see.
Are you Thereformer? ???
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Are you Thereformer?
Apparently, he had some issues with his account after he changed his email. He hasn't responded since then.
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Are you Thereformer? ???
Yes, I wanted to change my ancient adress email, but I did a mistake and I lost my account, but I asked "savage-carrot" and now it's ok , back .
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Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.
about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it ?
by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?
the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .
ah one moore thing don't pretend that you know Arabic language, because you still know nothing in it just some basics, they will not serve you with me .
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same thought had peeped into my mind.
Yes, I'm unique rotfl
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No, you have distorted firstly Quran, you have wrote the verse whithout """ and make it only "fa" , so be careful.
It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.
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It seems you see things with eyes semi opened and rush to the conclusion. Pl now again see the quote which you have quoted and see whether both are there or not.
I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif
where is "" ?
P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.
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about the word "" it could be after Talaq or before talaq, but both of them means one thing is take back your wife . because the order is to take back his wife, so we didn't know is it before divorce or after divorce . so again the question how do you know that the verse is talking about after divorce not before it?
It is simply childish. A man who is already in the state of "Mask" association with his wife, to such a man there is no point to advise him "".
by the way you didn't answer my questions and the adds in the verses from your own wrong interpretations ?
the sentence that mention the Talaq is that "( )" means when Zaid divorced her and finished being with her .It is again childish since children do not know what Talaq/divorce is and how it gets concluded .
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I've corrected your distortion and this is your quote about the verse
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/temp%2002%20%202.231.gif
where is "" ?
P.S You are trying to avoid my questions (from my posts which they are full of questions ). so next time don't pretend that you know Arabic, I can always prove the opposite, ah one more thing you are interpreting verses by your own desires and from what you want from the to be, so you better ask forgiveness from God.
Dont deceive yourself. The earlier context was this
Quote
I think you have took lessons of Arabic but not as good as I see." " this is the right verse /what you wrote is wrong and it's distortion because there is "" not "fa" alone .
Talaq/Divorce has since been pronounced. Fa indicates in consequence of that act already done/taken place, then is the time/when they have since completed their prescribed term , fa thereat, at that point in time, hold them back in association. Pl don't put the cart before the horse. Fa indicated cause and effect and not effect and cause. There has to be cause present for asking somebody to holdback his wife. Why simple common sense things become difficult for people to retain while reading Qur'aan, I don't understand, perhaps Bukhari and company keep haunting.
And please look with open eyes the first line of the verse pasted that the verbs are perfect, and then comes the imperative verb.