Inheritance according to Qur?an
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If David had two sons and two daughters then equation is undeniably 21 in favor of male children..
Even David had two sons and three daughters equation remains same 21 for male child..Even if David had THREE sons and only ONE daughter equation is 21 in favor of sons..
It's all about ONE MALE CHILD..
I know those verses are criticized by Arab christians etc vehemently as if these divisions are wrong and unfortunaly conventional Muslims also agree and... Shame..
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But note well if parents are alive and if the deceased has a child gender male parents gets 1/6 each.. Daughters there anyway gets..
So.. I would like ask Emere why parents not got any share? When no parents have given the proportions but if parents there proportions chsnges.. Agree? Or Any objections?
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If parents are alive of the deceased person never neglect them... 411 clarifies..
So let's see below with parents..
If David has one son and one daughter and wife and his both parents then
10000/8 =1250 for wife..
10000/6 =1666.66 for each parent
5416.67/2=2708.33 for each son and daughter
Any objection? -
411
" ... And for one's parents, to each one of them(dual) is a sixth of his if he left child (Walad) ...."Here walad everywhere on these two verses 411-12 is male child not merely a child.. And God has decided based on male child's presence the proportions.. Even in 412 it doesn't state NO CHILD but it literally states of NO MALE child but definitely they have child or children in the form of daughter.. It doesn't mean no children at all..
Any objection?Parents do get even deceased has a Male child.. Parents Ofcourse get if daughters only..
Logically ponder how come wife gets and parents don't? Is there a justice? Any objection..
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If parents are
In your will, you can give as much as you wish to whomever you wish.
But if you die without writing a will, these formulae are to be applied.
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411
.Logically ponder how come wife gets and parents don't? Is there a justice? Any objection..
In verse 11 the deceased has no living mate. Therefore, his parents and siblingand receive a share of the inheritance. But if there is a living spousenand and child too, the parents and siblings do not get a share.
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In verse 11 the deceased has no living mate. Therefore, his parents and siblingand receive a share of the inheritance. But if there is a living spousenand and child too, the parents and siblings do not get a share.
It doesn't state there is no living mate in 411..Does it?
If husband passed away in a family of one daughter and one son and wife alive and his parents alive.. But only children and wife gets not parents that's what you say but it's not what verses say.. I a afraid..Yes one can write as much as he wants when he makes a will... But who is better knowledgeable than Allah in dividing propertie while making a WILL also just before death or in advance.. Cuz Allah's division of property makes much more sense and very less chance of confrontation and argument..
Though it's division after demise it's model for anyone to follow while writing a will.. That's my take...unless the one who writes a will notices any evilness amongst his children or weakness
411 never states both spouse deceased..411 never states if both spouse left but it states HE (father) left and for HIS parents 1/6.
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It doesn't state there is no living mate in 411..Does it?
If husband passed away in a family of one daughter and one son and wife alive and his parents alive.. But only children and wife gets not parents that's what you say but it's not what verses say.. I a afraid..Yes one can write as much as he wants when he makes a will... But who is better knowledgeable than Allah in dividing propertie while making a WILL also just before death or in advance.. Cuz Allah's division of property makes much more sense and very less chance of confrontation and argument..
Though it's division after demise it's model for anyone to follow while writing a will.. That's my take...unless the one who writes a will notices any evilness amongst his children or weakness
411 never states both spouse deceased..If the deceased person has living spouse and living children too, parents and siblings do not receive a share.
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If the deceased person has living spouse and living children too, parents and siblings do not receive a share.
Yes.. Siblings don't get.. But parents do.. 1/6..unfortunately I have to disagree with your understanding brother unless and otherwise you explain 411 1/6 statement which clearly says IF HE HAS A MALE CHILD .. And not stated if THEY (BOTH SPOUSE) has a a male child for parents 1/6.. Then we can deduce.. Yes they are orphan so parents get 1/6..nopr.. Verse states IF HE HAS.. same in 412 IF SHE HAS a male child..
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Yes.. Siblings don't get.. But parents do.. 1/6..unfortunately I have to disagree with your understanding brother unless and otherwise you explain 411 1/6 statement which clearly says IF HE HAS A MALE CHILD ..
No;
In verse 11 there is no wife of the deceased. That is why there is a different division list and different shares.
In verse 12, the deceased has a living spouse. That is why there is a different list and different proportions.
Verses 11, 12 and 176 give different lists and shares for different situations.
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No;
In verse 11 there is no wife of the deceased. That is why there is a different division list and different shares.
In verse 12, the deceased has a living spouse. That is why there is a different list and different proportions.
Verses 11, 12 and 176 give different lists and shares for different situations.
And in verse 176, the deceased has no wife, children, parents. Therefore, this time only the brothers and sisters of the deceased are heirs.
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Nope..brother I think in my perception you have little complicated here.. I appreciate your understanding mostly Right..you can say same to me..
But.. No different formula in 412 and 411...one formula.. I reiterate one formula.. But depends on conditions.. And depends on gender and number of children.. No different formula in 411-12
4176 is totally different.. Unless you have different perspective to Kalala...
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Nope..brother I think in my perception you have little complicated here.. I appreciate your understanding mostly Right..you can say same to me..
But.. No different formula in 412 and 411...one formula.. I reiterate one formula.. But depends on conditions.. And depends on gender and number of children.. No different formula in 411-12
4176 is totally different.. Unless you have different perspective to Kalala...
No, you persist in your error.
In all 3 verses there are different formulae for different situations.
And that is why for example the proportions given to brothers in verse 12 and the proportions given to brothers in verse 176 are different . Because in verse 12 it is stated that if the deceased has a living spouse but no children, then the siblings will also receive a share.
In verse 176, on the other hand, only the brothers/sisters are alive. This time the share of the brothers/sisters is different from the one mentioned in verse 12.
By the way, you sometimes confuse the brothers and sisters of the deceased with the brothers and sisters of the children and similar expressions.
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No, you persist in your error.
In all 3 verses there are different formulae for different situations.
And that is why for example the proportions given to brothers in verse 12 and the proportions given to brothers in verse 176 are different . Because in verse 12 it is stated that if the deceased has a living spouse but no children, then the siblings will also receive a share.
In verse 176, on the other hand, only the brothers/sisters are alive. This time the share of the brothers/sisters is different from the one mentioned in verse 12.
By the way, you sometimes confuse the brothers and sisters of the deceased with the brothers and sisters of the children and similar expressions.
In case I have confused you with my English, I am sorry about that.. Not only to you but to everyone..
Well.. I hope you can maintain patience with me if your intention is to herald God's message to others with clarity within your knowledge ..Again I reiterate NO different formula In 411 and 412 ... but depends on gender and number of children and who is alive who is dead.. etc..
Whatever others understanding kalala is, let me tell you what kalala is in my understanding..
In simple unambiguous language "No direct decendants (child) and No direct ascendants (parent/s) but could have wife or husband to the living spouse.. Or both spouse living still kalala ..
But this state of Kalala can reach to its extreme end on top of its basic as I stated above save INDIRECT heirs (wife husband or siblings) .. ie the one who doesn't have decendants or ascendants could die.. Remember.. For example husband ..
Having said that... 4176 explains of extreme end of Kalala cuz the one who didn't have ascendants or decendants also passed away as verse clearly states... And accordingly heir is explained...But in 412 if one inherits(living) a state of Kalala no direct decendants or ascendants then, verse explains how to share.. Remember he still alive..
The word kalala itself indicates that children and parents are always DIRECT recipients regardless of any situation.. Indispensable share holders of wealth of their son's or daughter's or their father's or mother's respectively.. Not to confuse , let me elaborate like this.. David has son Adam and Sofia and David's parents Mary and Micheal.. These Adam, Sofia and Mary and Micheal always gets their due share cuz they are direct decendants and direct ascendants (devoid of any of them becomes a state of Kalala basically)
Now try to understand why proportion of kalala differs in 4176 compared to 412 ..No change in formula but living ones more in numbers in 412 though they are INDIRECT HEIRS .
How can decendants get portions always and ascendants won't and why then call Kalala?
Further simplify..
Direct recipients = children and patents of deceased ..
Indirect recipients = husband, wife and siblings of husband and wife or deceased.. conditional..
It's not a topic to debate or argue... Only misunderstanding can lead to difference in opinion... No harm.. Any of us could be in error.. But verses clear..
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411
" ... And for one's parents, to each one of them(dual) is a sixth of his if he left child (Walad) ...."Here walad everywhere on these two verses 411-12 is male child not merely a child..
2233 Awlādahunna/offspring theirs
411 Awlādikum/offspring yours6100 Lahu Banīna Wa Banātin (to Him sons and daughters)
6101 Anná Yakūnu Lahu Walad (offspring, male or female)
If walad is male child contradicts allows attributing daughters.And you'll run into all sorts of problems e.g.,
2/3 three+ daughters
1/2 sister
1/2 husband
1/3 mother -
in verse 12 it is stated that if the deceased has a living spouse but no children, then the siblings will also receive a share.
Where does it say but no children?
412
so if kāna (is) for you offspring, so to them the eight (1/ mimmā/from what left you
from after instruction (behest/will) thou instructing in it or dept.
and if is man inherited kalālatan (fatherless) or woman
and to him (i.e., person) brother or sister
so to each one of them dual the sixth (1/6)If spouse with/without children you rob the mother and/or father.
If spouse with/without children you rob the mother and/or siblings.It's thus, example $120k
$40k 1/3 to mother (411)
$40k 1/3 (1/2 * 2/3) to husband (412 1/2 mā/what left)
$40k 1/3 remainder to father$20k 1/6 to mother (411)
$30k 1/4 to wife (412 1/4 mimmā/from what left)
$70k 7/12 remainder to siblings (4176 if mixed)Likewise see prior post on meaning of Kalala.
Kalala can have mother, spouse, or children.Cannot enter 4176 l-kalālati means no child.
4176
Allah giveth ruling you in l-kalālati,
if individual died not is for him childTherefore, l-kalālati can have a child!
1031-3
وَالْعَصْرِ "and (by) the epoch (time)"إِنَّ الْإِنسَانَ لَفِي خُسْرٍ "indeed the humankind surely in loss"
إِلَّا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا وَعَمِلُوا الصَّالِحَاتِ وَتَوَاصَوْا بِالْحَقِّ وَتَوَاصَوْا بِالصَّبْرِ "except the ones believes they of and work they of the righteousness and exhort they of in the truth and exhort they of in the patience"
Salaam!
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In case I have confused you with my English, I am sorry about that.. Not only to you but to everyone..
Well.. I hope you can maintain patience with me if your intention is to herald God's message to others with clarity within your knoI think you sometimes mean something different when you say English parent. So read the verses again, revising the terms. When you say "parents", you can again use expressions like confusing the parents of the child with the parents of the deceased.
By the way, the parents of the deceased person are foreign to the spouse of the deceased person in terms of genes. So the protection of the spouse is also in question here.
Let me remind you again;
In verse 11 there is no spouse of the deceased,
In verse 12 there is the wife of the deceased
In verse 176, only the siblings of the deceased are alive (the parents, spouse and children of the deceased are not alive.
Since only the siblings of the deceased are alive in verse 176, the rate given to the siblings is different from the rate given to the siblings in verse 12 (because in verse 12 it is stated that the siblings can also receive a share if the deceased has a spouse but no children, and a different rate is given compared to verse 176).
412 (Additionally) - If a couple had no children, the husband gets half of what the wife leaves behind. - If they had children, the husband gets one-fourth. - If they had no children, then the wives get one-fourth of what the husband leaves behind. - If they had children then the wife gets one-eighth. - If a man or a woman, whose inheritance is in question, was a loner, in the sense of leaving behind no ascendants or descendants, but leaves behind a sister and a brother, each of them gets one-sixth of the inheritance. If there are more than two siblings, they equally share one-third of the inheritance. The above applies after fully satisfying the will, and after paying off all debts, so that no one's rights are infringed upon. This is the will decreed by God Who is Knower, Clement
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I think you sometimes mean something different when you say English parent. So read the verses again, revising the terms. When you say "parents", you can again use expressions like confusing the parents of the child with the parents of the deceased.
By the way, the parents of the deceased person are foreign to the spouse of the deceased person in terms of genes. So the protection of the spouse is also in question here.
Let me remind you again;
In verse 11 there is no spouse of the deceased,
In verse 12 there is the wife of the deceased
In verse 176, only the siblings of the deceased are alive (the parents, spouse and children of the deceased are not alive.
Since only the siblings of the deceased are alive in verse 176, the rate given to the siblings is different from the rate given to the siblings in verse 12 (because in verse 12 it is stated that the siblings can also receive a share if the deceased has a spouse but no children, and a different rate is given compared to verse 176).
412 (Additionally) - If a couple had no children, the husband gets half of what the wife leaves behind. - If they had children, the husband gets one-fourth. - If they had no children, then the wives get one-fourth of what the husband leaves behind. - If they had children then the wife gets one-eighth. - If a man or a woman, whose inheritance is in question, was a loner, in the sense of leaving behind no ascendants or descendants, but leaves behind a sister and a brother, each of them gets one-sixth of the inheritance. If there are more than two siblings, they equally share one-third of the inheritance. The above applies after fully satisfying the will, and after paying off all debts, so that no one's rights are infringed upon. This is the will decreed by God Who is Knower, Clement
And even in verse 11 it is stated that if the deceased has no wife and childs, but only parents, and if he has brothers and sisters, the brothers and sisters will also have a share, and the share here is also different.
In short, in verses 11, 12 and 176, separate/different shares are given for the siblings of deceased . Because the list is different in each verse.
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Dear Folks,
I hope it's okay for me to join this discussion with a question related to the topic of inheritance distribution according to Islamic law. My understanding is that the Quran encourages Muslims to prepare a will before passing away. This suggests that in the absence of a will, only then the prescribed shares for inheritance apply, is that right? I believe Jkhan has mentioned this point in the thread if not mistaken.
However, when a will is present, does it allow for how much flexibility in how one's assets are distributed among heirs?
Specifically, I'm curious if a person, for instance, a father, can allocate his assets—both liquid and non-liquid—among his children in a manner he deems just, based on his personal judgment and circumstances. For example, if one son has been particularly attentive to his parents, dedicating much of his time and effort to their care, while another has been distant or neglectful, can the father decide to leave a more significant portion of his estate to the more devoted son in his will?
I would appreciate it if someone could clarify whether such discretion is permitted within Islamic inheritance laws, keeping in mind the principles of fairness and justice that would presumably be considered on the Day of Judgment.
The reason for asking is that in certain arab countries the distribution of inheritance is primarily governed by Shariah law, which outlines specific shares for heirs. While the creation of a will is permissible, it's subject to certain Islamic legal restrictions, including that up to one-third of the estate can be allocated to non-heirs or causes not directly defined in Shariah. For the majority of the estate, the distribution among heirs follows predetermined shares as detailed in Islamic law. This ensures adherence to religious principles in the allocation of assets after death.
Hence my question because as my understanding considering that Surah An-Nisa, verses 11 and 12, mention "مِنۢ بَعْدِ وَصِيَّةٍۢ" "after the fulfillment of bequests," it's clear that Islamic law allows for consideration beyond the preset shares. Critics often overlook this when they argue that women receive less inheritance. It highlights the importance of preparing a will, with a thoughtful approach towards the needs of one's family after their passing, ensuring fairness and care for all, including wives and daughters. -
1657
And they attribute to Allah daughters (banati)1991
That they attribute to ArRahman a male child (Walad) .root wāw lām dāl (و ل د) is never directly means for a female child.. This is the same root by which it refers to Beget / give birth / parents or begetter / male child / Child (unknown gender) / Children and through same root it can give meaning of father / mother / offspring ( unknown gender) / decendant or offspring (mix gender) / boy ...
When you know the gender you can never use for female child but only for male child..
You can always write Walad with intent that you mean a male child...
You can always say also a Walad offspring (unknown gender) not for female only..
So.. Walad in the concerned topic verses are male child..
Read all Walad verses...
