Inheritance according to Qur?an
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There is a family..
David and Linda husband and wife..
And David and Linda has two daughters only Sofia and Emily..
And David has his parents Mary and Micheal...
Well David deceased...
Now David had 10000 USD after all debts etc..
Let us know how this 10000 USD is devided between Linda, Sofia, Emily, Mary and Micheal based on 4"11-12?Since the wife remains, verse 12 should be looked at again.
Again, only the wife and child can receive a share of the money.
Linda gets $1250, Sofia gets $4375, Emily gets $4375 .
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There is a family..
David and Linda husband and wife..
And David and Linda has three daughters only Sofia , Emily and Alice..
And David has his parents Mary and Micheal...
Well David deceased...
Now David had 10000 USD after all debts etc..
Let us know how this 10000 USD is devided between Linda, Sofia, Emily, Alice, Mary and Micheal based on 4"11-12?Linda $1250 , Sofia $2916,6 , Emily $2916,6 , Alice $2916,6 .
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There is a family..
David and Linda husband and wife..
And David and Linda has a daughter Sofia ..
And David has his parents Mary and Micheal...
Well David deceased...
Now David had 10000 USD after all debts etc..
Let us know how this 10000 USD is devided between Linda, Sofia, Mary and Micheal based on 4"11-12?Linda $1250 , Sofia $8750.
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There is a family..
David and Linda husband and wife..
And David and Linda has only daughter Sofia ..
And Linda has her parents Sabrina and Steve...
Well Linda deceased...
Now Linda had 10000 USD after all debts etc..
Let us know how this 10000 USD is devided between David, Sofia, Sabrina and Steve based on 4"11-12?Why I ask in this way is cuz 411 and 412 should be combined to answer..
David $2500 , Sofia $7500.
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Linda $1250 , Sofia $8750.
Yes... Thanks..
Now people might be wondering in case if not got the verses right. they would question it is mentioned "if only One Daughter ' she gets Half but here the amount is not Half what is explained by brother Emere..
Well.. Let me clarify..At least minimum ONE MALE Child + 1 daughter as I said conditional... Both will get half.. Suppose David had Sofia and Adam as children both Sofia and Adam get equal after Linda amount is given.. 8750/2=4375 for each Sofia and Adam and Linda 1250..
If David had Adam and two daughters Sofia and Emily.. Then 21 equation apples after Linda's amount is given..
8750/4= 2187.5 ..so both Sofia and Emily gets 2187.5 each while Adam gets 4375...- but if Davif had Adam and Sofia, Emily and Alice then 2/3 fir daughters after Linda's portion is given..
8750/3=2916.66 ..2916.66 for Adam but Sofia, Emily and Alice gets 5833.33..So Sofia, Emily and Alice gets 1944.44 each..
Any objections pls let me know.. -
If David had two sons and two daughters then equation is undeniably 21 in favor of male children..
Even David had two sons and three daughters equation remains same 21 for male child..Even if David had THREE sons and only ONE daughter equation is 21 in favor of sons..
It's all about ONE MALE CHILD..
I know those verses are criticized by Arab christians etc vehemently as if these divisions are wrong and unfortunaly conventional Muslims also agree and... Shame..
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But note well if parents are alive and if the deceased has a child gender male parents gets 1/6 each.. Daughters there anyway gets..
So.. I would like ask Emere why parents not got any share? When no parents have given the proportions but if parents there proportions chsnges.. Agree? Or Any objections?
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If parents are alive of the deceased person never neglect them... 411 clarifies..
So let's see below with parents..
If David has one son and one daughter and wife and his both parents then
10000/8 =1250 for wife..
10000/6 =1666.66 for each parent
5416.67/2=2708.33 for each son and daughter
Any objection? -
411
" ... And for one's parents, to each one of them(dual) is a sixth of his if he left child (Walad) ...."Here walad everywhere on these two verses 411-12 is male child not merely a child.. And God has decided based on male child's presence the proportions.. Even in 412 it doesn't state NO CHILD but it literally states of NO MALE child but definitely they have child or children in the form of daughter.. It doesn't mean no children at all..
Any objection?Parents do get even deceased has a Male child.. Parents Ofcourse get if daughters only..
Logically ponder how come wife gets and parents don't? Is there a justice? Any objection..
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If parents are
In your will, you can give as much as you wish to whomever you wish.
But if you die without writing a will, these formulae are to be applied.
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411
.Logically ponder how come wife gets and parents don't? Is there a justice? Any objection..
In verse 11 the deceased has no living mate. Therefore, his parents and siblingand receive a share of the inheritance. But if there is a living spousenand and child too, the parents and siblings do not get a share.
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In verse 11 the deceased has no living mate. Therefore, his parents and siblingand receive a share of the inheritance. But if there is a living spousenand and child too, the parents and siblings do not get a share.
It doesn't state there is no living mate in 411..Does it?
If husband passed away in a family of one daughter and one son and wife alive and his parents alive.. But only children and wife gets not parents that's what you say but it's not what verses say.. I a afraid..Yes one can write as much as he wants when he makes a will... But who is better knowledgeable than Allah in dividing propertie while making a WILL also just before death or in advance.. Cuz Allah's division of property makes much more sense and very less chance of confrontation and argument..
Though it's division after demise it's model for anyone to follow while writing a will.. That's my take...unless the one who writes a will notices any evilness amongst his children or weakness
411 never states both spouse deceased..411 never states if both spouse left but it states HE (father) left and for HIS parents 1/6.
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It doesn't state there is no living mate in 411..Does it?
If husband passed away in a family of one daughter and one son and wife alive and his parents alive.. But only children and wife gets not parents that's what you say but it's not what verses say.. I a afraid..Yes one can write as much as he wants when he makes a will... But who is better knowledgeable than Allah in dividing propertie while making a WILL also just before death or in advance.. Cuz Allah's division of property makes much more sense and very less chance of confrontation and argument..
Though it's division after demise it's model for anyone to follow while writing a will.. That's my take...unless the one who writes a will notices any evilness amongst his children or weakness
411 never states both spouse deceased..If the deceased person has living spouse and living children too, parents and siblings do not receive a share.
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If the deceased person has living spouse and living children too, parents and siblings do not receive a share.
Yes.. Siblings don't get.. But parents do.. 1/6..unfortunately I have to disagree with your understanding brother unless and otherwise you explain 411 1/6 statement which clearly says IF HE HAS A MALE CHILD .. And not stated if THEY (BOTH SPOUSE) has a a male child for parents 1/6.. Then we can deduce.. Yes they are orphan so parents get 1/6..nopr.. Verse states IF HE HAS.. same in 412 IF SHE HAS a male child..
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Yes.. Siblings don't get.. But parents do.. 1/6..unfortunately I have to disagree with your understanding brother unless and otherwise you explain 411 1/6 statement which clearly says IF HE HAS A MALE CHILD ..
No;
In verse 11 there is no wife of the deceased. That is why there is a different division list and different shares.
In verse 12, the deceased has a living spouse. That is why there is a different list and different proportions.
Verses 11, 12 and 176 give different lists and shares for different situations.
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No;
In verse 11 there is no wife of the deceased. That is why there is a different division list and different shares.
In verse 12, the deceased has a living spouse. That is why there is a different list and different proportions.
Verses 11, 12 and 176 give different lists and shares for different situations.
And in verse 176, the deceased has no wife, children, parents. Therefore, this time only the brothers and sisters of the deceased are heirs.
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Nope..brother I think in my perception you have little complicated here.. I appreciate your understanding mostly Right..you can say same to me..
But.. No different formula in 412 and 411...one formula.. I reiterate one formula.. But depends on conditions.. And depends on gender and number of children.. No different formula in 411-12
4176 is totally different.. Unless you have different perspective to Kalala...
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Nope..brother I think in my perception you have little complicated here.. I appreciate your understanding mostly Right..you can say same to me..
But.. No different formula in 412 and 411...one formula.. I reiterate one formula.. But depends on conditions.. And depends on gender and number of children.. No different formula in 411-12
4176 is totally different.. Unless you have different perspective to Kalala...
No, you persist in your error.
In all 3 verses there are different formulae for different situations.
And that is why for example the proportions given to brothers in verse 12 and the proportions given to brothers in verse 176 are different . Because in verse 12 it is stated that if the deceased has a living spouse but no children, then the siblings will also receive a share.
In verse 176, on the other hand, only the brothers/sisters are alive. This time the share of the brothers/sisters is different from the one mentioned in verse 12.
By the way, you sometimes confuse the brothers and sisters of the deceased with the brothers and sisters of the children and similar expressions.
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No, you persist in your error.
In all 3 verses there are different formulae for different situations.
And that is why for example the proportions given to brothers in verse 12 and the proportions given to brothers in verse 176 are different . Because in verse 12 it is stated that if the deceased has a living spouse but no children, then the siblings will also receive a share.
In verse 176, on the other hand, only the brothers/sisters are alive. This time the share of the brothers/sisters is different from the one mentioned in verse 12.
By the way, you sometimes confuse the brothers and sisters of the deceased with the brothers and sisters of the children and similar expressions.
In case I have confused you with my English, I am sorry about that.. Not only to you but to everyone..
Well.. I hope you can maintain patience with me if your intention is to herald God's message to others with clarity within your knowledge ..Again I reiterate NO different formula In 411 and 412 ... but depends on gender and number of children and who is alive who is dead.. etc..
Whatever others understanding kalala is, let me tell you what kalala is in my understanding..
In simple unambiguous language "No direct decendants (child) and No direct ascendants (parent/s) but could have wife or husband to the living spouse.. Or both spouse living still kalala ..
But this state of Kalala can reach to its extreme end on top of its basic as I stated above save INDIRECT heirs (wife husband or siblings) .. ie the one who doesn't have decendants or ascendants could die.. Remember.. For example husband ..
Having said that... 4176 explains of extreme end of Kalala cuz the one who didn't have ascendants or decendants also passed away as verse clearly states... And accordingly heir is explained...But in 412 if one inherits(living) a state of Kalala no direct decendants or ascendants then, verse explains how to share.. Remember he still alive..
The word kalala itself indicates that children and parents are always DIRECT recipients regardless of any situation.. Indispensable share holders of wealth of their son's or daughter's or their father's or mother's respectively.. Not to confuse , let me elaborate like this.. David has son Adam and Sofia and David's parents Mary and Micheal.. These Adam, Sofia and Mary and Micheal always gets their due share cuz they are direct decendants and direct ascendants (devoid of any of them becomes a state of Kalala basically)
Now try to understand why proportion of kalala differs in 4176 compared to 412 ..No change in formula but living ones more in numbers in 412 though they are INDIRECT HEIRS .
How can decendants get portions always and ascendants won't and why then call Kalala?
Further simplify..
Direct recipients = children and patents of deceased ..
Indirect recipients = husband, wife and siblings of husband and wife or deceased.. conditional..
It's not a topic to debate or argue... Only misunderstanding can lead to difference in opinion... No harm.. Any of us could be in error.. But verses clear..
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411
" ... And for one's parents, to each one of them(dual) is a sixth of his if he left child (Walad) ...."Here walad everywhere on these two verses 411-12 is male child not merely a child..
2233 Awlādahunna/offspring theirs
411 Awlādikum/offspring yours6100 Lahu Banīna Wa Banātin (to Him sons and daughters)
6101 Anná Yakūnu Lahu Walad (offspring, male or female)
If walad is male child contradicts allows attributing daughters.And you'll run into all sorts of problems e.g.,
2/3 three+ daughters
1/2 sister
1/2 husband
1/3 mother
