Are Gospel and Torah in the Quran the ones we know nowadays in the BIBLE?
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Peace Arnab
The word Father means the following in dictionary
Main Entry 1fa?ther
Pronunciation \f?-thr
Function noun
Etymology Middle English fader, from Old English f?der; akin to Old High German fater father, Latin pater, Greek patr
Date before 12th century
1 a a man who has begotten a child ; also sire 3 bcapitalized (1) god 1 (2) the first person of the TrinityNow, I think using the word Father will lead to a Great Sin.
Peace
Salam,
Allah is also said as having a hand, a side, walking (implies having legs and feet), talking (implies having a mouth and by extension a face) and many more.
Allah is above limitation.
IF we say that Allah is not father, mother, king, capable of talking, walking, having a side, then that in itself, is a limitation.
God is beyond limits.I say "father" and expect it to be understood as the best one word English translation available.
It is best to understand all the characteristics of the semitic words used and to consider English translations unrestricted to their literal meaning.Salam,
Arnab -
Some say Jesus, some say God.
I say it doesn't matter the Quran says both are correct5111
And when I revealed to the disciples, saying, Believe in Me and My messenger, they said We believe and bear witness that we submit (ourselves).
The root word amen (alif-meem-nun) means faith/belief/to be strengthened/secure etc in all the semitic languages. One English word does not really give the true depth of meanint that the root represents.
As for saying it at the end of prayers, this is tradition, not a command. I see nothing wrong with it.
We are to believe in Allah and all his messengers. Some say Adam was a messenger and some say that he was not. I personally think he was, but this is a subject of debate.
The root that is translated as good in John 1011, Luke 1819 and Mark 1018 is towb and has the same meaning in all the semitic languages good/beneficial
And, no it would be a contradiction. In Luke 1819 and Mark 1018 you have a man approaching Jesus and trying to exault him by calling him good teacher. This person went on to not only exalt Jesus but himself in this passage. Jesus (always speaking in metaphors and speech that made a point) tells this man that there is none Good except the ONE God. In order to help this man see the error of his ways, is how I see it.
Raheem is not used in John 1030....see how confusing English translations can be and why I say that none are accurate? The root word used is khann and briefly means as I stated before compassionate (the root word literally means to bend or stoop in kindness to an inferior).
That being said, we all have the capability to be raheem (merciful/compassionate) and it can be a human attribute as well as an attribute of Allah. The believers strive to always be compassionate and merciful in everything they do.
I do not agree with those who say that verses of the Quran should be taken out. To me this is a very serious transgression and the action of a disbeliever not the action of a believer.
Salam,
Arnabpeace arnab,
thanks.
ramon
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Son of God is a nickname given by his followers in recognition of his miraculous birth. Semitic society always named a person as the son of his father. Since he had no human father his followers called him son of God. The disbelievers called him a bastard.
Peace Bigmo,
I think you're mistaken..
Son Of God is an english translation from "Ben Elohym" in Hebrew.
"Ben Elohym" (singular) is a metaphorical 'title' within Jewish Culture, which means "God's man".The plural form; "Beney Elohym" was translated as "Sons Of God" in English which actually means "God's People".
Jesus himself clearly clarify what "Son Of God" and "Sons Of God" actually means
"Blessed are the peacemakers for they shall be called the sons of God (Hebrew Beney Elohym)"
Matthew 59Even David was also entitled as "Son Of God"..
"YHVH had said onto me (David), thou art my Son ; this day have I begotten thee."
Psalm 27There is huge difference in meanings between Jesus/David's "Son Of God" within Jewish Culture and Hercules Son Of Zeus within Pagan/Greek culture.
The misunderstanding came when the bible gets exported to (back then) the pagan worlds. (Europe, Egypt, Arab)They interpret Jesus Son Of God is the same as Hercules Son Of Zeus or Horus Son Of Isis..
Thus God had an "offspring" which of course also a God...Salam / Peace
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Peace Bigmo,
I think you're mistaken..
Son Of God is an english translation from "Ben Elohym" in Hebrew.
"Ben Elohym" (singular) is a metaphorical 'title' within Jewish Culture, which means "God's man".The plural form; "Beney Elohym" was translated as "Sons Of God" in English which actually means "God's People".
Jesus himself clearly clarify what "Son Of God" and "Sons Of God" actually means
"Blessed are the peacemakers for they shall be called the sons of God (Hebrew Beney Elohym)"
Matthew 59Even David was also entitled as "Son Of God"..
"YHVH had said onto me (David), thou art my Son ; this day have I begotten thee."
Psalm 27There is huge difference in meanings between Jesus/David's "Son Of God" within Jewish Culture and Hercules Son Of Zeus within Pagan/Greek culture.
The misunderstanding came when the bible gets exported to (back then) the pagan worlds. (Europe, Egypt, Arab)They interpret Jesus Son Of God is the same as Hercules Son Of Zeus or Horus Son Of Isis..
Thus God had an "offspring" which of course also a God...Salam / Peace
The root word ben literally means a builder.....it has come to mean son as the builder of the family name. A beni Eloheem is a "builder of God"
Then what is the fact from your viewpoint?
Gospel Of John was originally written in Aramaic????
Kindly shows me where it is!Salam / Peace
www.peshitta.org
The only thing I recommend on the site is the Aramaic.
They use Syriac instead of Aramaic to translate the Gospels and the translation is utter nonsense in most cases.Salam,
Arnab -
www.peshitta.org
The only thing I recommend on the site is the Aramaic.
They use Syriac instead of Aramaic to translate the Gospels and the translation is utter nonsense in most cases.Here is the hard evidence of the oldest remnants of Gospel Of John
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rylands_Library_Papyrus_P52
It is originally written in Greek (Not Aramaic).The Gospel Of John within the Peshita is a translation from Greek to Aramaic.
Someone has wrote an excellent review on Gospel Of John which I tend to agree..
http//www.infidels.org/library/modern/james_still/gospel_john.htmlIn Summary The Gospel Of John is
- Originally written in Greek.
- Anti Jewish
- Show strong influence of Hellenism concept and paradigm (e.g. LOGOS)
- Very distinct compared to the synoptic gospels (mark,matt,luke)
- Written as early as 100 AD
- Most probably written by a pagan/greek convert to christian.
- Thus not suprisingly it is also the most popular and oft-referenced gospel by the pagan christians (which form the majority of today christians)
Salam / Peace
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Here is the hard evidence of the oldest remnants of Gospel Of John
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rylands_Library_Papyrus_P52
It is originally written in Greek (Not Aramaic).The Gospel Of John within the Peshita is a translation from Greek to Aramaic.
Someone has wrote an excellent review on Gospel Of John which I tend to agree..
http//www.infidels.org/library/modern/james_still/gospel_john.htmlIn Summary The Gospel Of John is
- Originally written in Greek.
- Anti Jewish
- Show strong influence of Hellenism concept and paradigm (e.g. LOGOS)
- Very distinct compared to the synoptic gospels (mark,matt,luke)
- Written as early as 100 AD
- Most probably written by a pagan/greek convert to christian.
- Thus not suprisingly it is also the most popular and oft-referenced gospel by the pagan christians (which form the majority of today christians)
Salam / Peace
Salam,
Again, all of the above is your opinion.This is a brief overview (not a complete explaination) of why I believe in the Aramaic Primacy
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_PrimacySalam,
Arnab -
Appart from the fact that there are translation problem as mentionned by Arnab, don't you really think that the writing style of the Bible cleary shows that it is a man made scripture.
I agree the source is divine but saying "The Bible is word of God" is pretty hard to accept. By reading it we clearly see that the authors are men. -
Peace Bigmo,
I think you're mistaken..
Son Of God is an english translation from "Ben Elohym" in Hebrew.
"Ben Elohym" (singular) is a metaphorical 'title' within Jewish Culture, which means "God's man".The plural form; "Beney Elohym" was translated as "Sons Of God" in English which actually means "God's People".
Jesus himself clearly clarify what "Son Of God" and "Sons Of God" actually means
"Blessed are the peacemakers for they shall be called the sons of God (Hebrew Beney Elohym)"
Matthew 59Even David was also entitled as "Son Of God"..
"YHVH had said onto me (David), thou art my Son ; this day have I begotten thee."
Psalm 27There is huge difference in meanings between Jesus/David's "Son Of God" within Jewish Culture and Hercules Son Of Zeus within Pagan/Greek culture.
The misunderstanding came when the bible gets exported to (back then) the pagan worlds. (Europe, Egypt, Arab)They interpret Jesus Son Of God is the same as Hercules Son Of Zeus or Horus Son Of Isis..
Thus God had an "offspring" which of course also a God...Salam / Peace
But Jesus and his disciples spoke in Aramaic.
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About the Bible
I am not expert in Bible, Gospel and Torah, but as there are mentioned in Quran, I question myself.
The so called "Bible King James version", the one most used nowadays is the Bible with the 5th majeur revision!
The red letter Bible is a Bible where all what Jesus says is written in red. This Bible still exist and 21 of the 27 books doesn't have any red mark!!!
So I think the Bible we know today is not the Injeel.
source Ahmed Deedat