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  4. Help with Quranic Word!

Help with Quranic Word!

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • B Offline
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    bkanwar2
    wrote on last edited by
    #47

    Dear Sis, Let me clearify some of my expression mistake as well elaborate further on issues under discussion.

    • What do you mean by "interpreted as ablution"?
    • Who writes it like this ?

    What I meant to say was that word "with out Harkaat" and not with Harkaat, will always be interperated by a modren Arabic speaker as act of ablution before prayer. I never said it occurs in Alkitab. All tradition books have written it as . In addition, please open the link to lane's lexicon and see what he is translating from authentic Arabic lexicons. Please confirm or refute him by confirming FROM the original referances, if you can access them. Furthermore, with out different Harkaat, there would have been no way for even natives NOW TO REALISE THAT THERE EXSIST TWO DIFFERENT WORDS WITH SAME THREE CONSONANTS AND COMPLETE DIFFERENT MEANINGS, JUST BASED ON DIFFERENCE IN HARKAATS. One of them did not even exsist in classic language, but used and performed atleast five times by most today. How do you explain this?

    I do not need harakaat to understand who the agent or patient in such a sentence. Agreed for this purpose most native will not need any grammatical help in most languages. Although in most languages there are clues to indicate in a sentence. What do you feel now these markers are, if Harkaat of tenwen are not needed? Furthermore, for non speaker this will become a great issue and hence some markers are certainly needed, specially in language where most sentences consists of only few words, unlike English.

    Badar

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      bkanwar2
      wrote on last edited by
      #48

      Just for clearity sake. I think I have confused you by using "Term Hakaat" for inflection marks of noun. I guess should be calling them , please understand these as such and not Harkaats, hope this should help.

      Badar

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        bkanwar2
        wrote on last edited by
        #49

        Dear Sis, while I wait for your response to the previous post. Let me continue to bring issue with example from Alkitab. This word we have discussed before . I can not find this in Lane. Word that has meaning of guidance is with fetha . What do you feel is the explanation here? Thanks as always.

        Badar

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          Samia
          wrote on last edited by
          #50

          What I meant to say was that word "with out Harkaat" and not with Harkaat, will always be interperated by a modren Arabic speaker as act of ablution before prayer. I never said it occurs in Alkitab. All tradition books have written it as .

          Sorry for the belated response.
          L.Lexicon does not differ from any CA dictionary in this entry. Nowhere in the link does LL says that waduu'; (with any harakaat) means anything other than ablution. Maybe your are confusing it with (wadu'a verb to be /become illuminated; and always with a final fatha, since it's a perfect/past tense). The spelling of both words is different. Also, one is a noun and the other is a verb, so no place for confusion and no need for tashkeel/harakaat/vocalization context rules.

          Dear Sis, while I wait for your response to the previous post. Let me continue to bring issue with example from Alkitab. This word we have discussed before . I can not find this in Lane. Word that has meaning of guidance is with fetha . What do you feel is the explanation here? Thanks as always.

          I am surprised that you can't find it in LL. What root did you search (should be Haa Daal Yaa)?
          You mean example from the qur'aan "Alkitab"? Please give me the verse where you ind this word .

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            bkanwar2
            wrote on last edited by
            #51

            Dear Sis, thanks for reply. I know you are very busy. I thank you for just putting up with me. Please see at the bottom of link page above. Lane is pointing out with duma translated as act of ablution from Arab authority being unaware/denied as part of classic. Hoever, one with fetha translated as water, which will be a noun being approved.

            As regards , referance from Alkitab is 22 and many others. However, when I look under Haa Dal Yaa in Lane, I don't find one with duma, except when he quotes from Alkitab. In quotes from Alkitab, he is pointing to word with duma. However, as root words from linguistic point of view, he cites the first Harkaat, on Haa is always fetha on this page. Here is link for your ease, where you will not find a word with a Duma on first Haa, with meanings suggestive of guidance, a course, conduct, method etc. It is always fetha. How do you explain this? Thanks

            Badar

            http//www.studyquran.org/LaneLexicon/Volume8/00000296.pdf

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              Samia
              wrote on last edited by
              #52

              This is what LL says

              signifies The act of ablution, 41c. (~, I~)
              (see 8 ); and , the water with which that
              act is performed, or the water that is prepared
              for that act, (., g, TA,) and is said to be also
              an inf. n., or they are syn. words
              of two different dialects, each sometimes used as
              an inf. n. signifng the act, (though inf ns. of
              the measure deviate from the constant rule,
              TA,) and each sometimes as signifying the
              water. (, , TA.) AA says, that signifies
              the water with which one performs the
              ablution above mentioned; " and he knew not

              and A'Obeyd disallows , and allows only

              He just cites what other CA scholars say, and he clearly syas it's either or, and that each word is used for water or ablution

              As for your other querry, he seems to start his entries with the simple perfect verb (form I), except when form I is not in use (so he is one who sees the perfect verb as the root). This is what I noticed in the two links you provided. That's why you see he starts with , which is the perfect (past) tense. Maybe you can investigate this with other roots.
              I do not see where it quotes from Alkitaab. The first sentence is not a part of any verse, the second, , he gives its meaning as "alqur'aan"

              He is following, or he follows a
              right direction.- The Kur-an

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                bkanwar2
                wrote on last edited by
                #53

                AA says, that signifies
                the water with which one performs the
                ablution above mentioned; " and he knew not

                and A'Obeyd disallows , and allows only

                Sis, how are you making your conclusion, that A'Obeyd disallows and allows only , as in the page from Lane both words are written with fetha in this quote from A'Obeyd, likely a printing error. But hard to decide which one is allowed and which one disallowed. Likely, when word and this method of ablution does not occur in Alkitab, unlikley to be suggested by prophet.

                Badar

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                  Samia
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #54

                  Sis, how are you making your conclusion,

                  Context, Badr, context! I know there was a typo, but what A'Obeyd says can't be the same as what AA says. Moreover, Lane says both words are used for both meanings, therefore he has to provide evidence for each usage, not two evidence for one only.

                  Likely, when word and this method of ablution does not occur in Alkitab, unlikley to be suggested by prophet.

                  It does not matter what word is used for ablution. Since we understand what it meant, and what it meant is there in the qur'aan, what's the problem? The problem is the twisting of the method. I do ablution as instructed in the qur'aan, but still call it "". The hadith uses many words as they are in the qur'aan, but gives them a different meaning. Would this hadith's meaning be OK because it's using the same word as cited in the qur'aan? What word do you suggest to reflect the qur'aanic meaning for ablution (mind you, the qur'aan does not give a word, but detailed instructions of what to do before salaat)? Do you believe that ablution (whatever the arabic word for it might be) does not occur in the qur'aan?

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                    bkanwar2
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #55

                    Thanks Sis. Do you have any means of verifying this Quote from original source. The reason it is important, because the word Wadu is not mentioned in Alkitab. Furthermore, if this word as a verb, as performed by people now five times/day did not exsist in CA. This fact would be clearly, one more proof that all those Hadith, about act of ablusion, relating to five times prayer and these prayers attributed to noble prophet are a later innovation. Quranic word for ablution you already know is in 56

                    Badar

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                      Samia
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #56

                      Thanks Sis. Do you have any means of verifying this Quote from original source. The reason it is important, because the word Wadu is not mentioned in Alkitab. Furthermore, if this word as a verb, as performed by people now five times/day did not exsist in CA. This fact would be clearly, one more proof that all those Hadith, about act of ablusion, relating to five times prayer and these prayers attributed to noble prophet are a later innovation. Quranic word for ablution you already know is in 56

                      Badar

                      What about ? It's half the method of "ablution".
                      Now I understand where you come from. There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse (death, menustration, child birth and becoming a Muslim according to traditional Islam). The question would be What's exactly is "ghusl", and is it mentioned in the qur'aan or how to perform it? This calls for a separate thread (I do not know if this has already been discussed).

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                        bkanwar2
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #57

                        Sister what about word ? I have posted link to Lane's relevant page, all with fetha on Haa, for your review.

                        Badar

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                          Mazhar
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #58

                          What about ? It's half the method of "ablution".
                          Now I understand where you come from. There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse (death, menustration, child birth and becoming a Muslim according to traditional Islam). The question would be What's exactly is "ghusl", and is it mentioned in the qur'aan or how to perform it? This calls for a separate thread (I do not know if this has already been discussed).

                          and also do not go near/join Salat {enter mosque/congregation of Salat] in a state emanating from intercourse with wife/ejaculation-wet dream until you have taken bathe/purified yourselves with water, exception is for one in journey". .

                          "And if you people are in the state, resulting from intercourse with your wives , for that reason you purify yourselves".
                          For being in the state of , once it is said and second time . They are derived, respectively, from the Root " " and " ". The basic perception infolded in Root " " is to wash with water signifying the removing of dirt, or filth or the like thereof by making water to run over it resulting in cleansing/free from unpleasantness-impurity. And the basic perception infolded in the Root " " is also to make something clean or pure from dirt or filth. In both, the basic job done is to segregate oneself, one thing from the impurities clung to it/around it.
                          The distinction and peculiarity, however, of the two is that " " is restrictively used for corporeal cleaning/purification with water while Root " " has connotation both corporeal and ideological and can be attained both with the help of water and otherwise.

                          As for what we perceive from "ablution" it is partial " " of some parts of the body speciically mentioned in the Quran which are normally exposed/uncovered and hence it is distinct from the " " which is ever in commonly known perception taking bath, cleaning/refreshing the entire body.

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                            Samia
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #59

                            and also do not go near/join Salat {enter mosque/congregation of Salat] in a state emanating from intercourse with wife/ejaculation-wet dream until you have taken bathe/purified yourselves with water, exception is for one in journey".

                            Thanks. This is the verse I meant when I said

                            There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse

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                              Samia
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #60

                              Sister what about word ? I have posted link to Lane's relevant page, all with fetha on Haa, for your review.

                              Badar

                              I already responded to this here

                              As for your other querry, he seems to start his entries with the simple perfect verb (form I), except when form I is not in use (so he is one who sees the perfect verb as the root). This is what I noticed in the two links you provided. That's why you see he starts with , which is the perfect (past) tense. Maybe you can investigate this with other roots.
                              I do not see where it quotes from Alkitaab. The first sentence is not a part of any verse, the second, , he gives its meaning as "alqur'aan"

                              He is following, or he follows a
                              right direction.- The Kur-an

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                                herbman
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #61

                                Hi all, Samia, Bkanwar,

                                I am not a big supporter of code 19, BUT will it be possible, it is just an hypothesis that is written with instead of ALIF to support the counting of ALIF, LAM, MIM, just as it is in one surat (don't remember which one) with SIN and SAD (inverted).

                                Peace

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                                  Samia
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #62

                                  Hi all, Samia, Bkanwar,

                                  I am not a big supporter of code 19, BUT will it be possible, it is just an hypothesis that is written with instead of ALIF to support the counting of ALIF, LAM, MIM, just as it is in one surat (don't remember which one) with SIN and SAD (inverted).

                                  Peace

                                  Salaam

                                  You are talking about ( & ) in 2247 and 769 where one wrod is written in 2 different spellings (maybe it's not even the same word, no one researched that). But as far as "huda" is concerned, it's written this way althrough the Book. It's not the only word ending with alif maqsura.

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                                    bkanwar2
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #63

                                    Herbman, I want to salute you for your efforts on pondering upon linguistic of the Alkitab. This is one word that is bothering me too. One explanation in a grammar book I have found that used to be written with an Alif up top of as part of tenween of fetha. Sis Samia, may like to comment on this. I have not seen a copy of Alkitab with such a script to date.

                                    Badar

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                                      Samia
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #64

                                      Herbman, I want to salute you for your efforts on pondering upon linguistic of the Alkitab. This is one word that is bothering me too. One explanation in a grammar book I have found that used to be written with an Alif up top of as part of tenween of fetha. Sis Samia, may like to comment on this. I have not seen a copy of Alkitab with such a script to date.

                                      Badar

                                      Salaam anwar
                                      Maybe you mean the Alif up as above any for example (check a mushaf, not a quraan on line) where the alif is not written and is replaced with this small alif for pronunciation convenience.

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                                        bkanwar2
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #65

                                        No, Sis, what I mean is like they write with an Alif on yaa. I can not type it with key keyboard, like you see printed in books.

                                        Badar

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                                          Samia
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #66

                                          No, Sis, what I mean is like they write with an Alif on yaa. I can not type it with key keyboard, like you see printed in books.

                                          Badar

                                          It's the same one I meant. So it's not limited to the alif maqsoura, and helps in pronunciation and differentiating it from the yaa. Mybe dotting the yaa is a recent invention ( & )

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