Help with Quranic Word!
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What I meant to say was that word "with out Harkaat" and not with Harkaat, will always be interperated by a modren Arabic speaker as act of ablution before prayer. I never said it occurs in Alkitab. All tradition books have written it as .
Sorry for the belated response.
L.Lexicon does not differ from any CA dictionary in this entry. Nowhere in the link does LL says that waduu'; (with any harakaat) means anything other than ablution. Maybe your are confusing it with (wadu'a verb to be /become illuminated; and always with a final fatha, since it's a perfect/past tense). The spelling of both words is different. Also, one is a noun and the other is a verb, so no place for confusion and no need for tashkeel/harakaat/vocalization context rules.Dear Sis, while I wait for your response to the previous post. Let me continue to bring issue with example from Alkitab. This word we have discussed before . I can not find this in Lane. Word that has meaning of guidance is with fetha . What do you feel is the explanation here? Thanks as always.
I am surprised that you can't find it in LL. What root did you search (should be Haa Daal Yaa)?
You mean example from the qur'aan "Alkitab"? Please give me the verse where you ind this word . -
Dear Sis, thanks for reply. I know you are very busy. I thank you for just putting up with me. Please see at the bottom of link page above. Lane is pointing out with duma translated as act of ablution from Arab authority being unaware/denied as part of classic. Hoever, one with fetha translated as water, which will be a noun being approved.
As regards , referance from Alkitab is 22 and many others. However, when I look under Haa Dal Yaa in Lane, I don't find one with duma, except when he quotes from Alkitab. In quotes from Alkitab, he is pointing to word with duma. However, as root words from linguistic point of view, he cites the first Harkaat, on Haa is always fetha on this page. Here is link for your ease, where you will not find a word with a Duma on first Haa, with meanings suggestive of guidance, a course, conduct, method etc. It is always fetha. How do you explain this? Thanks
Badar
http//www.studyquran.org/LaneLexicon/Volume8/00000296.pdf
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This is what LL says
signifies The act of ablution, 41c. (~, I~)
(see 8 ); and , the water with which that
act is performed, or the water that is prepared
for that act, (., g, TA,) and is said to be also
an inf. n., or they are syn. words
of two different dialects, each sometimes used as
an inf. n. signifng the act, (though inf ns. of
the measure deviate from the constant rule,
TA,) and each sometimes as signifying the
water. (, , TA.) AA says, that signifies
the water with which one performs the
ablution above mentioned; " and he knew notand A'Obeyd disallows , and allows only
He just cites what other CA scholars say, and he clearly syas it's either or, and that each word is used for water or ablution
As for your other querry, he seems to start his entries with the simple perfect verb (form I), except when form I is not in use (so he is one who sees the perfect verb as the root). This is what I noticed in the two links you provided. That's why you see he starts with , which is the perfect (past) tense. Maybe you can investigate this with other roots.
I do not see where it quotes from Alkitaab. The first sentence is not a part of any verse, the second, , he gives its meaning as "alqur'aan"He is following, or he follows a
right direction.- The Kur-an -
AA says, that signifies
the water with which one performs the
ablution above mentioned; " and he knew notand A'Obeyd disallows , and allows only
Sis, how are you making your conclusion, that A'Obeyd disallows and allows only , as in the page from Lane both words are written with fetha in this quote from A'Obeyd, likely a printing error. But hard to decide which one is allowed and which one disallowed. Likely, when word and this method of ablution does not occur in Alkitab, unlikley to be suggested by prophet.
Badar
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Sis, how are you making your conclusion,
Context, Badr, context! I know there was a typo, but what A'Obeyd says can't be the same as what AA says. Moreover, Lane says both words are used for both meanings, therefore he has to provide evidence for each usage, not two evidence for one only.
Likely, when word and this method of ablution does not occur in Alkitab, unlikley to be suggested by prophet.
It does not matter what word is used for ablution. Since we understand what it meant, and what it meant is there in the qur'aan, what's the problem? The problem is the twisting of the method. I do ablution as instructed in the qur'aan, but still call it "". The hadith uses many words as they are in the qur'aan, but gives them a different meaning. Would this hadith's meaning be OK because it's using the same word as cited in the qur'aan? What word do you suggest to reflect the qur'aanic meaning for ablution (mind you, the qur'aan does not give a word, but detailed instructions of what to do before salaat)? Do you believe that ablution (whatever the arabic word for it might be) does not occur in the qur'aan?
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Thanks Sis. Do you have any means of verifying this Quote from original source. The reason it is important, because the word Wadu is not mentioned in Alkitab. Furthermore, if this word as a verb, as performed by people now five times/day did not exsist in CA. This fact would be clearly, one more proof that all those Hadith, about act of ablusion, relating to five times prayer and these prayers attributed to noble prophet are a later innovation. Quranic word for ablution you already know is in 56
Badar
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Thanks Sis. Do you have any means of verifying this Quote from original source. The reason it is important, because the word Wadu is not mentioned in Alkitab. Furthermore, if this word as a verb, as performed by people now five times/day did not exsist in CA. This fact would be clearly, one more proof that all those Hadith, about act of ablusion, relating to five times prayer and these prayers attributed to noble prophet are a later innovation. Quranic word for ablution you already know is in 56
Badar
What about ? It's half the method of "ablution".
Now I understand where you come from. There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse (death, menustration, child birth and becoming a Muslim according to traditional Islam). The question would be What's exactly is "ghusl", and is it mentioned in the qur'aan or how to perform it? This calls for a separate thread (I do not know if this has already been discussed). -
What about ? It's half the method of "ablution".
Now I understand where you come from. There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse (death, menustration, child birth and becoming a Muslim according to traditional Islam). The question would be What's exactly is "ghusl", and is it mentioned in the qur'aan or how to perform it? This calls for a separate thread (I do not know if this has already been discussed).and also do not go near/join Salat {enter mosque/congregation of Salat] in a state emanating from intercourse with wife/ejaculation-wet dream until you have taken bathe/purified yourselves with water, exception is for one in journey". .
"And if you people are in the state, resulting from intercourse with your wives , for that reason you purify yourselves".
For being in the state of , once it is said and second time . They are derived, respectively, from the Root " " and " ". The basic perception infolded in Root " " is to wash with water signifying the removing of dirt, or filth or the like thereof by making water to run over it resulting in cleansing/free from unpleasantness-impurity. And the basic perception infolded in the Root " " is also to make something clean or pure from dirt or filth. In both, the basic job done is to segregate oneself, one thing from the impurities clung to it/around it.
The distinction and peculiarity, however, of the two is that " " is restrictively used for corporeal cleaning/purification with water while Root " " has connotation both corporeal and ideological and can be attained both with the help of water and otherwise.As for what we perceive from "ablution" it is partial " " of some parts of the body speciically mentioned in the Quran which are normally exposed/uncovered and hence it is distinct from the " " which is ever in commonly known perception taking bath, cleaning/refreshing the entire body.
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and also do not go near/join Salat {enter mosque/congregation of Salat] in a state emanating from intercourse with wife/ejaculation-wet dream until you have taken bathe/purified yourselves with water, exception is for one in journey".
Thanks. This is the verse I meant when I said
There's already the word which is used for the washing after intercourse
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Sister what about word ? I have posted link to Lane's relevant page, all with fetha on Haa, for your review.
Badar
I already responded to this here
As for your other querry, he seems to start his entries with the simple perfect verb (form I), except when form I is not in use (so he is one who sees the perfect verb as the root). This is what I noticed in the two links you provided. That's why you see he starts with , which is the perfect (past) tense. Maybe you can investigate this with other roots.
I do not see where it quotes from Alkitaab. The first sentence is not a part of any verse, the second, , he gives its meaning as "alqur'aan"He is following, or he follows a
right direction.- The Kur-an -
Hi all, Samia, Bkanwar,
I am not a big supporter of code 19, BUT will it be possible, it is just an hypothesis that is written with instead of ALIF to support the counting of ALIF, LAM, MIM, just as it is in one surat (don't remember which one) with SIN and SAD (inverted).
Peace
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Hi all, Samia, Bkanwar,
I am not a big supporter of code 19, BUT will it be possible, it is just an hypothesis that is written with instead of ALIF to support the counting of ALIF, LAM, MIM, just as it is in one surat (don't remember which one) with SIN and SAD (inverted).
Peace
Salaam
You are talking about ( & ) in 2247 and 769 where one wrod is written in 2 different spellings (maybe it's not even the same word, no one researched that). But as far as "huda" is concerned, it's written this way althrough the Book. It's not the only word ending with alif maqsura.
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Herbman, I want to salute you for your efforts on pondering upon linguistic of the Alkitab. This is one word that is bothering me too. One explanation in a grammar book I have found that used to be written with an Alif up top of as part of tenween of fetha. Sis Samia, may like to comment on this. I have not seen a copy of Alkitab with such a script to date.
Badar
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Herbman, I want to salute you for your efforts on pondering upon linguistic of the Alkitab. This is one word that is bothering me too. One explanation in a grammar book I have found that used to be written with an Alif up top of as part of tenween of fetha. Sis Samia, may like to comment on this. I have not seen a copy of Alkitab with such a script to date.
Badar
Salaam anwar
Maybe you mean the Alif up as above any for example (check a mushaf, not a quraan on line) where the alif is not written and is replaced with this small alif for pronunciation convenience. -
No, Sis, what I mean is like they write with an Alif on yaa. I can not type it with key keyboard, like you see printed in books.
Badar
It's the same one I meant. So it's not limited to the alif maqsoura, and helps in pronunciation and differentiating it from the yaa. Mybe dotting the yaa is a recent invention ( & )
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Salaam
You are talking about ( & ) in 2247 and 769 where one wrod is written in 2 different spellings (maybe it's not even the same word, no one researched that). But as far as "huda" is concerned, it's written this way althrough the Book. It's not the only word ending with alif maqsura.
Dear Samia
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Regards
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Dear Samia
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Regards
You are talking about ibdaal exchanging a letter with another to facilitate the pronunciation. The quraan uses this rule, and when it's applied to a word, this word is written in one way only. Search for and for example. They are used more than once with the same spelling. The word does not conform to this rule of ibdaal, and they call it one of the strange/unfamiliar examples of quraanic vocabulary. What I say is maybe it's another word and there's nothing strange. This is the same logic that says is the same as
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You are talking about ibdaal exchanging a letter with another to facilitate the pronunciation. The quraan uses this rule, and when it's applied to a word, this word is written in one way only. Search for and for example. They are used more than once with the same spelling. The word does not conform to this rule of ibdaal, and they call it one of the strange/unfamiliar examples of quraanic vocabulary. What I say is maybe it's another word and there's nothing strange. This is the same logic that says is the same as
Dear Samia
This " " is not restricte to these few words many other alphabet are also interchangeable in Arabic language. This is not a strange phenomenon because books on classical Arabic have written special chapter on this topic.These change may be because of simplicity or principle or just without any reason which is known as trible dialect or just " " .
Regards