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Question for Sister Samia

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • B Offline
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    bkanwar2
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    Dear Sister could you please explain, why did Arab Grammarians decided to use terms, Fetha, Dumma and Kesra for semivowels? Thanks

    Badar

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      Samia
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      Dear Sister could you please explain, why did Arab Grammarians decided to use terms, Fetha, Dumma and Kesra for semivowels? Thanks

      Badar

      Salaam Badr
      I think you too know! It's quite obvious, even if grammarians did not say it explicitly (I do not know if they did, but I can't find another reason). This is what I think
      I think it's following what you do with the lips when pronouncing these vowels

      **Damma (Daad Meem Meem) verb means to bring something close to another/ join/ hug, as in

      "Now draw thy hand close to thy side It shall come forth white , without harm/stain,- as another Sign,-(2022)
      (When pronouncing the u, the two lips are brought close together)

      ** Fatha verb fataha (Faa Taa Haa) to open/relax, as in

      until, when they arrive, there, its gates will be opened (3971)
      (When pronouncing a, the mouth is open and the lips are apart)

      ** Kasra verb kasara (Kaaf Seen Raa) to break/bend/weaken
      (when pronouncing the i, the lower lip is bent downwards)

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        bkanwar2
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        Dear sister, thanks for literal meanings. I was just wondering, if you knew any definations or linguistic reasons of using these terms. But it appears that were adapted entirely for phonetic representation.

        Badar

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          bkanwar2
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          Dear sister, if I understand you correctly, you have implied several times in past. The diacritical marks i.e., Harkaats that are integeral part of word construct are even necessary for natives to understand meanings of the words. However, diacritical marks written just like Harkaats, but indentified for definations purpose, to differentiate from real Harkaat, as Aarabs are not necessary for understanding the meaning of a sentence. Is my understanding of your position correct?
          Thanks as always.

          Badar

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          • S Offline
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            Samia
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Salaam Badr

            Your question is ambiguous. Here are the diacritic signs specific to Arabic (ref. Wiki)

            ( and stand alone &#1569 hamza indicates a glottal stop.

            ( ) tanwn (&#1606 symbols. Serve a grammatical role in Arabic. The sign is most commonly written in combination with (Alif), e.g

            ) shadda Gemination (doubling) of consonants.

            ( ) wala Indicates where an alif is not pronounced.

            ( ) madda. A replacement for two alifs in a row. Read as a glottal stop followed by a long /a/.

            (&#1648 superscript alif (also "short" or "dagger alif". A rare replacement for "long" Alif in some words.

            arakt (In Arabic also called tashkl).

            • ( ) fata (a)
            • ( ) kasra (i)
            • ( ) amma (u)
            • ( ) sukn (no vowel)

            The arakt or vowel points serve two purposes

            • They serve as a phonetical guide. They indicate the presence of short vowels (fata, kasra, or amma) or their absence (sukn).
            • At the last letter of a word, the vowel point reflects the inflection case or conjugation mood.
              o For nouns, The amma is for the nominative, fata for the accusative, and kasra for the genitive.
              o For verbs, the amma is for the imperfective, fata for the perfective, and the sukn is for verbs in the imperative or jussive moods.

            All of them are essential not just for meaning purposes, but also for ease of pronunciation, as in many languages, English included (as the case of short vowels). In addition to this, the part of diacritics signs under "harakaat" above, such as fatha, damma, kasra and sukuun, plus their related tanween signs, have been assigned an additional role by grammarians to mark the function of a word in a sentence, such as subject, object,...etc. It's this role or function of harakaat that is not indispensible to understand a sentence, and native speakers are not very good in this subject; nor does the written material care about them or show them.

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              bkanwar2
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              Dear Sister my thanks for such an elegant and elaborate write up. It will not only help us both in future as a referance point, but as well any other person intrested in this discussion. I could not have done it even if I tried.

              Sister lets now discuss, Harkat as defined in your post. You are implying that these four signs, (four because you have written four, also I know people use sukun and jezm interchangabley). Hence for discussion sake we assume, sukun and Jezm are one and same. Since Sukun is integeral for understanding meanings of a given word, even for natives. Would you please share your undersdtanding of it. What is its role in imparting meaning to a given word? Thanks.

              Badar

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                Samia
                wrote on last edited by
                #7

                Dear Sister my thanks for such an elegant and elaborate write up. It will not only help us both in future as a referance point, but as well any other person intrested in this discussion. I could not have done it even if I tried.

                Sister lets now discuss, Harkat as defined in your post. You are implying that these four signs, (four because you have written four, also I know people use sukun and jezm interchangabley). Hence for discussion sake we assume, sukun and Jezm are one and same. Since Sukun is integeral for understanding meanings of a given word, even for natives. Would you please share your undersdtanding of it. What is its role in imparting meaning to a given word? Thanks.

                Badar

                jazm and sukuun are not the same and are not used interchangeably not every sukuun is jazm and not all jazm is by sukuun. The only connection is that some jazm is demonstrated by a sukuun. We discussed this before where I explained this point. I cannot, even for discussion purposes, assume that jazm and sukuun are the same.

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                  bkanwar2
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #8

                  That is even better, because I have same understanding as well. Then first please settle this issue where would you put Jezm in your above classification? Would you place it with Harkats?

                  Badar

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                    Samia
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #9

                    That is even better, because I have same understanding as well. Then first please settle this issue where would you put Jezm in your above classification? Would you place it with Harkats?

                    Badar

                    If you had the same understanding you wouldn't ask such a question jazm is not a sign, diacritical or not.

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                      bkanwar2
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #10

                      I did not mean to imply I have same understanding as yours. But what I meant was, that my understanding is also that Jezm and Sukuun are not interchangable, not one and same. Would you mind sharing your understanding, of Jezm, please. Thanks.

                      Badar

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                        Samia
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #11

                        Would you mind sharing your understanding, of Jezm, please. Thanks.

                        Badar

                        http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9596746.msg172567#msg172567

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                          bkanwar2
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #12

                          Fair enough dear sis, how would you identify the "round mark" on second Lam in red, of this construct and second one on Ya. Thanks

                          Badar

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                            Samia
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #13

                            Fair enough dear sis, how would you identify the "round mark" on second Lam in red, of this construct and second one on Ya. Thanks

                            Badar

                            http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9597852.msg193647#msg193647

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                              bkanwar2
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #14

                              Thanks again, but to remove any ambiguities in this discussion. Would you please name "the round" sign in the text in question. First one happens to be on second Lam and second one on Yaa.

                              Badar

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                                Samia
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #15

                                Thanks again, but to remove any ambiguities in this discussion. Would you please name "the round" sign in the text in question. First one happens to be on second Lam and second one on Yaa.

                                Badar

                                I am not a kid in a kindergarten, and I hate to be tested.
                                What we are discussing has no effect on the words of God, which were revealed without these diacritical signs. By now you should have known what I think just as I know where your questions lead to, going around and around to say sukuun (or jazm, according to you) is the end of a word and the beginning of another. If you do not want to accept my understanding, fair enough. I am not taking yours, and it's fair enough, too.
                                Let's agree to disagree.

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                                  bkanwar2
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #16

                                  No reason to be upset sister. I asked you a simple question please label, rounded marks in the text, put the definition on them; from the elegant write up of yours above. These marks that you know what they are, based on your knowledge. But you are free not to, I respect your freedom. I have never asked you to agree with me. It is purely an academic discussion; so far no personal opinions involved or are there?

                                  Pecae,

                                  Badar

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                                    bkanwar2
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #17

                                    Dear and respected Sister Samia, I would never treat you with disrespect, so even do not imagine that. Final question in our discussion of, weather Jezm indicate end of a word or not? Do you consider Sibawayhi and his Al-Kitab as a respectable authority in Arabic grammar or not? My understanding is, when one says word Alkitab; more Arabs think of Sibawayhi's AlKitab, than real AlKitab.

                                    Badar

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                                      Mazhar
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #18

                                      Fair enough dear sis, how would you identify the "round mark" on second Lam in red, of this construct and second one on Ya. Thanks

                                      Badar

                                      There is no such "round mark" anywhere on this word throughout in the Grand Qur'aan. Only on the second lam there is a jezm on it. The word which is placed in colour seems to be the Urdu version of Qur'aan.

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                                        Mazhar
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #19

                                        I have swiftly gone through first 100 Aa'ya'at of Chapter 2 and have noted that round mark only appears on the alif if it is at the end of a word, and it appears on waw in between in the word Aoulaika "these/they are". On no other word/consonant this sign appears. Pl throw some light on it.

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                                          bkanwar2
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #20

                                          Dear Mazhar, please elaborate your question and your point. It is not very clear to me. Hence until I understand your question, I can not answer it. Thanks.

                                          Badar

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