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  4. Wife beating in islam? The Quran strikes back

Wife beating in islam? The Quran strikes back

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  • T Offline
    T Offline
    The_Chimp
    wrote on last edited by
    #126

    In the illustration provided, notice the in brackets (it's circled in red) signifying that the word may be used with OR without 'An for that meaning.

    No. Please look at the illustration again . . .

    It says or = to turn away from

    And the verb Adraba with additional Alif - is a different class of verb.

    In Western Classification it is verb from IV .

    More details

    http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_verbs
    http//arabic.desert-sky.net/g_vforms.html

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    • A Offline
      A Offline
      aqua
      wrote on last edited by
      #127

      No. Please look at the illustration again . . .

      It says or = to turn away from

      And the verb Adraba with additional Alif - is a different class of verb.

      In Western Classification it is verb from IV .

      More details

      http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arabic_verbs
      http//arabic.desert-sky.net/g_vforms.html

      Well, the verse does use the verb WITH the Alif, so you have no point

      http//s23.postimg.org/qrixvd43f/4_34.png

      Are you just arguing for the sake of arguing? The truth is that if you want to beat your wife, you would beat your wife no matter what, you wouldn't care what the Qur'an says.

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      • M Offline
        M Offline
        Man_of_Faith
        wrote on last edited by
        #128

        Peace,

        Who cares? Who would beat his wife anyway?

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        • A Offline
          A Offline
          aqua
          wrote on last edited by
          #129

          Peace,

          Who cares? Who would beat his wife anyway?

          Unfortunately many men do, and there are even those hypocrites who try to justify it using the Qur'an.

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          • T Offline
            T Offline
            The_Chimp
            wrote on last edited by
            #130

            Well, the verse does use the verb WITH the Alif, so you have no point

            http//s23.postimg.org/qrixvd43f/4_34.png

            Are you just arguing for the sake of arguing? The truth is that if you want to beat your wife, you would beat your wife no matter what, you wouldn't care what the Qur'an says.

            I have degree in Arabic have studied the subject extensively. . . so don't ask me - if I am arguing for the sake of arguing. Try not to get "tetchy" - and then blame even that one me.

            Note I am not being rude or making personal remarks about you.

            Now back to the issue

            The illustration you provide . . . that is using the Arabic Verb Form I in the imperative form. Look this up at the same website . Whereas, the dictionary is pointing to the standard verb in the fourth form .

            As I originally pointed out - you do not have to take my word for it - please do verify it with someone who know Arabic.

            I recommend

            http//forum.wordreference.com/forumdisplay.php?f=41

            It is impartial language forum and there are several people very good at Arabic.

            I have also checked the better and simply formatted Hans Wehr - it too equates Verb Form I with 'An - to the verb form IV.

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            • A Offline
              A Offline
              aqua
              wrote on last edited by
              #131

              I have degree in Arabic have studied the subject extensively. . . so don't ask me - if I am arguing for the sake of arguing. Try not to get "tetchy" - and then blame even that one me.

              Note I am not being rude or making personal remarks about you.

              Now back to the issue

              The illustration you provide . . . that is using the Arabic Verb Form I in the imperative form. Look this up at the same website . Whereas, the dictionary is pointing to the standard verb in the fourth form .

              As I originally pointed out - you do not have to take my word for it - please do verify it with someone who know Arabic.

              I recommend

              http//forum.wordreference.com/forumdisplay.php?f=41

              It is impartial language forum and there are several people very good at Arabic.

              I have also checked the better and simply formatted Hans Wehr - it too equates Verb Form I with 'An - to the verb form IV.

              All the sources I have seen including the links you provided show that Verb Form 4 requires a Hamza symbol above the Alif like this , but the dictionary does not make use of this symbol in the definition. Hence, the illustration is not necessarily referring to Verb Form 4. This is not just an incidental omission because Lane's dictionary does make use of Hamza on Alif elsewhere in other definitions.

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              • T Offline
                T Offline
                The_Chimp
                wrote on last edited by
                #132

                All the sources I have seen including the links you provided show that Verb Form 4 requires a Hamza symbol above the Alif like this , but the dictionary does not make use of this symbol in the definition. Hence, the illustration is not necessarily referring to Verb Form 4. This is not just an incidental omission because Lane's dictionary does make use of Hamza on Alif elsewhere in other definitions.

                And if you review the illustration you provided - then notice it too carries the Hamzah Walsi sign on top for the imperative command verb.

                As to the Lane's dictionary - it do not talk about Imperative Verbs - that is Form IV - see the dictionary Hans Wehr - it too omits the Hamza sign and simply uses the Alif.


                Imperative form of the verb is a derived form - it makes absolutely no sense for the command form not to carry the same particles - this does not happen in Arabic


                Take this link

                http//arabic.desert-sky.net/g_vforms.html

                Now for the form 4 - this uses the word Kharaja - Akhraja.

                Then check this on Lane's. You will notice the dictionary's use of the Hamaza Wasl is erratic - it uses it on some words and not the others - yet the discussion is still about the same word in form 4.


                Also - go back to Da Ra Ba root in the Lane's Lexicon. There look up the Form 4 for this verb - again - you will notice Lane's is erratic regarding the little Hamza sign - on some it is there on some it isn't.


                This is not just an incidental omission because Lane's dictionary does make use of Hamza on Alif elsewhere in other definitions.

                Simply not true.

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                • WakasW Offline
                  WakasW Offline
                  Wakas
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #133

                  The_Chimp,

                  I am still waiting for the Prayer debate! What happened to that?

                  I was waiting for people to join in, as I clearly said. Updated http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9606088.msg346685#msg346685

                  ...by pointing to a document showing Muslims did not pray before the order of 5 prayers came along!

                  The above is a lie against me. See forum rule 3, and please correct it
                  http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=8177.0

                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                  • T Offline
                    T Offline
                    The_Chimp
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #134

                    The_Chimp,

                    I was waiting for people to join in, as I clearly said. Updated http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9606088.msg346685#msg346685

                    The above is a lie against me. See forum rule 3, and please correct it
                    http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=8177.0

                    It is not a lie - but a mistake in that I meant to say - "did not pray 5" - Hence

                    ...by pointing to a document showing Muslims did not pray 5 before the order of 5 prayers came along!


                    As to pointing out rule 3!

                    Jeez! I get a lot of abuse . . . far stronger . . . I hope you are "as" diligent when I put a complaint in.

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                    • A Offline
                      A Offline
                      aqua
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #135

                      And if you review the illustration you provided - then notice it too carries the Hamzah Walsi sign on top for the imperative command verb.

                      As to the Lane's dictionary - it do not talk about Imperative Verbs - that is Form IV - see the dictionary Hans Wehr - it too omits the Hamza sign and simply uses the Alif.

                      Imperative form of the verb is a derived form - it makes absolutely no sense for the command form not to carry the same particles - this does not happen in Arabic

                      Take this link

                      http//arabic.desert-sky.net/g_vforms.html

                      Now for the form 4 - this uses the word Kharaja - Akhraja.

                      Then check this on Lane's. You will notice the dictionary's use of the Hamaza Wasl is erratic - it uses it on some words and not the others - yet the discussion is still about the same word in form 4.

                      Also - go back to Da Ra Ba root in the Lane's Lexicon. There look up the Form 4 for this verb - again - you will notice Lane's is erratic regarding the little Hamza sign - on some it is there on some it isn't.

                      A very strong refutation to your 'Verb Grammar' argument is the following. It shows how the meaning of 'leave / separate' in the Lexicon can apply here even if it is referring to the 4th Form Verb

                      We have to remember that the first written versions of the Quran had no
                      vocalisation, in other words, they left out short vowels and other signs
                      that tell us how to read the letters that are written. Arabic verbs have
                      many forms with different meanings, like the English verbs press -
                      repress depress pressurize.

                      One of the things that is used to mark
                      these forms is a letter alif at the beginning, which marks the 4th form of
                      the verb. You can think of the alif as a standard suffix, like English re-
                      or de-

                      But heres the crunch the aleph at the beginning is also the marker
                      for the imperative (and of the interrogative, but that is not relevant
                      here), so in a text without the short vowels written, an imperative looks
                      the same as the 4th form of the verb, and also the same as the imperative
                      of the 4th form (because the alif is not doubled, one alif does both
                      jobs).

                      The verb in this case is d-r-b. Daraba means he beat. So the meaning of
                      the first form is beat, while one of the meanings of the 4th form is
                      leave.

                      The form in this verse of the Quran is | D r b

                      This could mean, you must beat (imperative of first form). Or it
                      could mean you leave or it could mean you must leave

                      If we take it as an imperative of the 4th form, it would be
                      pronounced ad.ribuu-hunna and the translation would be you (masculine
                      plural you&#8217 shall withdraw from them.

                      Sequentially he tells them first to admonish their wives, then
                      refuse to share their beds, then withdraw from them, then (next
                      verse) appoint arbiters from the families. That is a logical
                      progression.

                      Source http//senmcglinn.wordpress.com/email-archive/beat-your-wives/

                      Undoubtedly you will now claim that your Arabic knowledge is better and that the above is incorrect. But religious obstinacy can make a person persist in falsehood no matter how much they are proven wrong.

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                      • T Offline
                        T Offline
                        The_Chimp
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #136

                        A very strong refutation to your 'Verb Grammar' argument is the following. It shows how the meaning of 'leave / separate' in the Lexicon can apply here even if it is referring to the 4th Form Verb

                        Read this back to yourself . . . it is somewhat contradictory. On one hand - you admit I am right to point out that and on the other you attempt, dogmatically, to hold on to your former position. Result? The above contradictory statement.

                        The question regarding the verb is simple. I even gave you means to verify it by an impartial Arabic language forum.

                        Undoubtedly you will now claim that your Arabic knowledge is better and that the above is incorrect. But religious obstinancy can make a person persist in falsehood no matter how much they are proven wrong.

                        Such statements are disingenuous by type. Why don't you wait for my response? What it shows is that you fear my Arabic actually is better and if you do bring forth another reply, which, if like others, is proven to be incorrect - then - that will leave you in dilemma.

                        Are you saying by above that it does not matter what I reply . . . you are going to carry on believing whatever you fee like?

                        But religious obstinancy can make a person persist in falsehood no matter how much they are proven wrong.

                        Could you point out in what you have proven me wrong? How deceptive! Look at the previous exchange. What is it I am wrong about?

                        Please do explain.

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                        • A Offline
                          A Offline
                          aqua
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #137

                          Could you point out in what you have proven me wrong? How deceptive! Look at the previous exchange. What is it I am wrong about?

                          You claimed that since the dictionaries refer to 4th Form Verb, this makes it impossible to apply that meaning to verse 434. I showed you how grammatically it is possible to apply a 4th Form Verb to verse 434. You made a misinformed point about the grammar in the Qur'an.

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                          • S Offline
                            S Offline
                            shohorabA
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #138

                            peace, brothers and sisters,

                            After a lot of research into 434 of The Quran and the meaning of DaRaBa, I have finally finished a 1st draft of my study

                            Please take your time to review it, as it is over 40 pages in length. There are a few minor points within it that still need verified/clarified, these are in purple font. As a side note, it was a very interesting journey completing this work, something which I did not initially intend to write, but as my discoveries mounted up, it soon became something that I simply had to write and publish.

                            All feedback is welcome, especially any corrections.

                            Once it has been reviewed, a dedicated site and promotional tools will accompany it.

                            EDIT above link does not work now, website is www.Quran434.com

                            Good effort and good work Wakas. Probably the most comprehensive analysis of a single topic I have seen.

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                            • WakasW Offline
                              WakasW Offline
                              Wakas
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #139

                              peace aqua, all,

                              Yes, I was aware of that Lane Lexicon reference, however I was also aware of the somewhat controversy surrounding it AND note that I said "making this the only DRB example of this kind in The Quran" i.e. I did not say there was no example of this kind in existence.
                              Your post about the tashkeel/vocalisation markings cleared it up. We should bear in mind the earliest extant scripts of The Quran had no vocalisation/tashkeel marks.

                              Thus, my current understanding is, "go away from them" in 434 is theoretically possible IF one assumes the tashkeel/vocalisation of the present day Arabic Quran is incorrect AND one is willing to solve/overcome the issues I mentioned earlier.

                              Please note, I do not actually think "go away from them" is viable. Note that DRB is used to mean "withdraw from" in 435, and it is the first verb form without Alif, thus if The Quran was being consistent one would have thought it would use the same first verb form with the preposition "AAn" in 434 if it meant "withdraw from them".

                              Interestingly, Laleh Bakhtiar (who translates it "go away from&quot considers it to be the first form verb. It is possible she has an Arabic reference for this first form meaning that but I am not aware of her referencing such a source. If others are, let me know. She also discusses an objection based on the claim that DRB in 434 is a transitive verb and can thus only take a direct object, however her interpretation requires it to be intransitive so it can take an indirect object. I would be interested in hearing the Quranic evidence for/against this.

                              And as for the other issues I highlighted, I would be surprised if someone could solve them. I would like to clarify number (6) by explaining it, e.g. if in the reversed-role of 4128-129 the woman was to leave/withdraw from her husband then she is doing what she fears i.e. iAAradan/alienation or turning away, which makes little sense.

                              Also in the quote you provided it said
                              "Sequentially he tells them first to admonish their wives, then
                              refuse to share their beds, then withdraw from them, then (next
                              verse) appoint arbiters from the families. That is a logical
                              progression."

                              To clarify, in case there is confusion, it is not the husband that is appointing arbiters, it is the authority/community. How they find out about such a situation, or where the husband goes (if he can afford to go somewhere that is) is not explained in such an understanding.

                              And lastly, personally, I am very cautious of using the argument "the tashkeel is incorrect here, and that is how my view can work" argument. Especially so, if there is a perfectly sound option available.

                              All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                              • U Offline
                                U Offline
                                uq
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #140

                                Peace all,

                                I have always been of the opinion that 434 presents itself as an inconvenience to readers of the Quran with Modern sensibilities, as well as presenting itself as an anomaly to the rest of the Quranic message that exhorts patience and self-restraint.

                                However, to date, I have unfortunately not found any proof from the dictionaries that can mean any thing other than "strike them", explicitly.

                                Despite this, we can appeal to its use as a metaphor (what the Arab grammarians term "tropical application&quot, in that it is used to mean "go away" or "separate", implicitly.

                                But, unfortunately for us, this position is extremely untenable as there is no precedence of this use.

                                There are two important points to bear in mind when considering in 434

                                1. The root admits of a huge number of various meanings in the Classical Language. Words derived from this root seem to have been used to signify some form of motion, as "to strike" or "to travel" or "to impress a coin" or "to snatch away" etc., and a great deal of them are tropical applications. Notwithstanding this, they are almost always prepositional compounds, that is, they occur with obligate prepositions, as or or , etc. Whereas in 434, the verb occurs without a preposition; it takes a direct object. This is a difficulty for those of us who seek to justify its signification as being "separate from them" or "go away from them."

                                2. The phrase signifies "to travel the earth", but it cannot be separated from the preposition (which means "in" this much is certain. However, Az-Zabd states in Tj al-?Ars meaning "and the applies to all acts but a few." This is probably why so many entries of the root are tropical applications. Can this, therefore, by extension, be applied to 434? That is for the reader of the Quran to reckon.

                                Ultimately, the reader of the Quran is left to reflect.

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                                • H Offline
                                  H Offline
                                  huruf
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #141

                                  There is no crime in 4.34 therefore there cannot be any question of any punishment. The fear that somebody may do something wrong may warrant that that somebody is advised, warned or counselled or informed of the fears of the persons concerned, but most certainly does not warrant that he or she is punished for the fear that somebody may have that he or she may do something wrong.

                                  D-r-b, as to its meaning in the sentence appears quite clear and neat and in accordance with the general fundamental significance of the root if taken as making something apparent an clear and efficient. You fear something, so you state it to the person you fear may do something and get clarity from him or her.

                                  And the community is the one who is in charge of doing that in this case of 4.34. No need to go into preventive war or punishment, that is not quranic at all.

                                  But the meaning of hitting has been useful historically to affirm marital authority of the husband over the wife, which otherwise is nowhere in the Qur'an but which at that time was the rule in most civilizations if not all. So that legitimation of marital authority was put in the Qur'an by way of making it a punishment of the husband to the wife. There wa snot intention at all of having women beaten, but there was the needed idea to uphold marital authority over the wife. As we all know, the world would have crumbled had that authority not been there, like it is crumbling now for that reason(if we believe some scholars).

                                  So what was not in the qur'an was injected by that subtle means.

                                  The fact that there is nothing done, just feared, in the sentence, is a clear mark that there can be no beating nor anything that might be understood as a punishment or "teaching" to somebody who has behaved or is behaving wrongly, that is no correction, neither from the community who is addressed nor of course from the husband, who is not addressed at all.

                                  There is still in spanish dictionnaries a verb derived from daraba (adarvar) which has precisely that meaning, like stun or surprise, but no indication of anything physical.

                                  Salaam

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                                    N Offline
                                    noble
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #142

                                    Salam huruf,

                                    you have got it reasonably right, the word daraba is used in the Quran for the aim of breaking a narrative, like when relating a story whose purpose is to advocate a change in behaviour... the Quran is full of this...

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                                    • H Offline
                                      H Offline
                                      huruf
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #143

                                      Salam huruf,

                                      you have got it reasonably right, the word daraba is used in the Quran for the aim of breaking a narrative, like when relating a story whose purpose is to advocate a change in behaviour... the Quran is full of this...

                                      Indeed, you are right, but the hitting bit seems to to have a bewitching effect and once somebody has fallen under the spell they cannot escape it no matter how far fetched or illogical.

                                      Salaam

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                                      • N Offline
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                                        noble
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #144

                                        Indeed, you are right, but the hitting bit seems to to have a bewitching effect and once somebody has fallen under the spell they cannot escape it no matter how far fetched or illogical.

                                        Salaam

                                        at the risk of sounding racist to my own kind (I have about half Arabic blood and an 8th Ottoman), I think the Arabs and many of the tribes Islam absorbed, such as Persians, Mongols, Ottomans are pretty violent, and after all slavery is still rampant in the Arabian Gulf Sheikhdoms...

                                        violence is the most sordid form of control...

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                                        • A Offline
                                          A Offline
                                          aqua
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #145

                                          Please note, I do not actually think "go away from them" is viable. Note that DRB is used to mean "withdraw from" in 435, and it is the first verb form without Alif, thus if The Quran was being consistent one would have thought it would use the same first verb form with the preposition "AAn" in 434 if it meant "withdraw from them".

                                          I don't think that is an equal comparison because a function of the Alif in verse 434 is to denote the imperative / command form, whereas verse 435 does not require the imperative / command form. Taking the Alif in 434 to also denote the 4th form of a verb, this can allow both the meaning of 'Separate' as well as providing the appropriate imperative expression. In verse 435, an imperative expression is not required (instead there is an interrogative Alif used as a prefix), so it is not necessary for this verse to be worded in the same way as 434.

                                          Personally I don't feel the other issues you mentioned are strong enough objections because most can be addressed with an answer resembling 'not necessarily'.

                                          1. it is not quite a conflict-resolution step and if not meant to imply divorce/talaq then it seemingly penalises the husband implying he should move out.

                                          Not necessarily. A period of separation may be useful in resolving a marital conflict (ie. to calm things down / allow gradual resolution), and the Qur'an's emphasis is not on who leaves the house in this context. The emphasis is on the course of action, ie. separation as a potential aid to conflict resolution.

                                          1. any degree of leaving/separating/shunning may fall afoul of doing iAAradan (alienation / turning away) in 4128, thus such a step may give the wife a legitimate reason for ending the marriage, thus unless clarified/limited this meaning does not fit well.

                                          Verse 4128 encourages the possibility of reconciliation when the wife is in the situation of husband committing opposition / turning away. This seems to be supporting the view of a separation for the purposes of attempting reconciliation in verse 434. How does this give the wife legitimate reason for ending marriage?

                                          1. results in incoherence when DRB is used with a human as the direct object (see 4357 and 273)

                                          This does not necessarily disprove the interpretation of 'separate' in verse 434.

                                          1. requires the insertion of "from" making this the only DRB example of this kind in The Quran, even though the preposition "AAn /from" is used with DRB in 435 in a very similar usage as being suggested here for 434.

                                          Not necessarily, as discussed earlier in this thread.

                                          1. provides no explanation as to how the authority find out about the issue in the marriage by 435

                                          Qur'an does not need to provide such details. Perhaps this has been deliberately left out to allow adaptation to different societies, authorities and court systems.

                                          1. makes little sense when in the reversed role 4128-129

                                          Instead, it seems to correlate with the interpretation of 'separate' in verse 434, as mentioned in point 2 above.

                                          1. has no supporting example in Quran

                                          There might not be an identical example, but at least there is usage of that meaning in verse 435. The overriding principles of tolerance, justice and compassion throughout the Qur'an also provide further support.

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