Question to all Muslims and Quranists
-
A friend who is still struggling with meaning of , as "neither there is,nor shall be a deity for worship and adoration, save, One who, neither is, nor shall be, a deity for worship or adoration".
Asked me as if this is a complete sentence, or may it would be better explained by words before or after. Hence, I searched the great reading few times. This expression is no where to be found in Quran in this order. This likely makes it an expression that could not be attributed to Rabb. My question is whose expression is this and why? And if it not required by our Rabb, how come it became the first article of Muslim faith?
Badar
-
Thanks Dear Mazhar, for your kindness. Please, share some rules of Arabic syntax that lead you to break down this verse in this order.
Badar
Translation may suffice
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/37.35.gif
Indeed they were the people who when it was said for them,
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/37.35a.gif
"there is absolutely no iela'aha except Allah"
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/27.35b.gif
they used to make themselves demonstrate arrogance of grandeur, -
Irrespective of translation original question was this
Dear all, when there is any critique about themes of Quran. Most often the defense put forward by all Muslims/scholars is that "the text should not be taken out or interpreted out of context". It should be seen in context with verses before and after. I fully understand and concur with this line of reasoning. However, my question is that why this very principle should not hold in regard to very first principle of faith of traditional Islam?
Why this text is used out of context? It is no where to be found in this order in Qur'an. Could someone give logic for this, to this illiterate?
Badar
This still remains unaddressed. Both these instance of occurance of first part of Kalma, are not the whole verses. But are expression taken out of context and put with another out of context verse to make the first article of faith. Question remains why and who did it? Can it be defended, based upon logic of not quoting verses, out of context?
Badar
-
Dear all, when there is any critique about themes of Quran. Most often the defense put forward by all Muslims/scholars is that "the text should not be taken out or interpreted out of context". It should be seen in context with verses before and after. I fully understand and concur with this line of reasoning. However, my question is that why this very principle should not hold in regard to very first principle of faith of traditional Islam?
Why this text is used out of context? It is no where to be found in this order in Qur'an. Could someone give logic for this, to this illiterate?
Badar
JUST TO REMIND THIS IS THE QUERY
BADAR
-
Believers pronounce the above two statements. Why?
{refer 5728]
This is the linguistic understanding of this part of 5728. Radically different from which is being questioned above.
O you sleepy inadvertent, whom ever want to be safe and secure. Be cautious of the fact that, One, is not a deity for worship and adoration. And in order to safe guard and secure yourself, come and be with the message and communication from the One and Only.
Badar