Etymology study : The Indo-European languages and the Arabic Tangue
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I give you another exemple, these people who invented languages and fabricated them when colonising the world, wanted to change the whole HISTORY , to keep controlling in the future
look at the word ALROOM
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the ROOM was defeated
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in the lowest land, and after their defeat, they will be victorious
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in a few years, for Allah are the affairs from before and after, and that moment will be joyfull for MUMINUN
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With the triumph of Allah, he'll triumph whom he wills and he is the supreme, the mercifull
When I read these verses, I ask a question, why would the mouslim be joyfull and happy, with the victory of a foreign nation, agaist another foreign nation, while they're both non muslims ? Why would Allah promiss a victory to muslims, while the victory isn't their and they have nothing to do in that war ? and the best is, why allah calls that victory of a non muslim nation, NASR ALLAH ?
this whole thing stink SATAN explanation in history and hadith booksIn this case, the simplest explanation is that the vocalization marks are wrong. It should be the Romans won and afterwards they will lose. There is too much pre-quranic evidence of the word "rwm" as "Romans" in the epigraphic record, including the famous Namara inscription.
I suggest, Take in consideration that the language of the quran, is the 1st language intelligent men were inspired FROM ALLAH, at least, give a prooof that the language of the quran , is just another langue made by man , or the TONGUE inspired from the begining
I use to laugh at Arabs when they say Arabic is the origin of all languages, but after study, I realised that ARABS are wrong, because the quran isn't arabic language, but it contains all languages of the world
BY The way , JUNUD isn't persian , it simply means AGENTS , when Allah speaks of Agents we don't see, he's talking about secret agents, and not some spirits from another dimension, but men , agentsThe great reading itself says that it was revealed in the language of the people of the messenger and not in somekind of divine language. In fact, the Arabic language, like any human language, contains many inconsistencies and those linguistic inconsistencies are obvious in the great reading. However, this is part of the amazing characteristics of the great reading. The god took an inconsistent human language and used it to deliver a consistent and very powerful message.
The word "jund" is Persian and as I said it has no verbal root in Arabic. On the other hand, it is documented in Persian inscriptions that predate the Arabic language.
Peace,
Ayman
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Peace loxbox
There are other reasons why Qoran( the last testament) was sent in Arabic, as well as "because the prophet was Arab" Quote from RK
Arabic is the most efficient language in the world, especially when it comes to the precise statement of laws. Since the Quran is a Statute Book, it was crucial that such laws must be clearly stated. God chose Arabic for His Final Testament because of the obvious reason that it is the most suitable language for that purpose. Arabic is unique in its efficiency and accuracy. For example, the word "they" in English does not tell you if "they" are males or females. In Arabic there is a "they" for the males, "HUM," and a "they" for the females, "HUNNA." There is even a "they" for two males, "HUMAA," and a "they" for two females, "HAATAAN." This feature does not exist in any other language in the world.
Also
The word "Qaalataa" of 2823, for example, translates into four English words "the two women said." Such is the efficiency of the Arabic language.
Another possible reason for choosing Arabic is the fact that "He" and "She" do not necessarily imply natural gender. Thus, when God is referred to as "He," this does not imply gender at all. God be glorified; He is neither male, nor female. The usage of "He" to refer to God in the English language, for example, has contributed to a false image of God. This was not helped by such distorted expressions as "Father" when referring to God. You never find such a reference to God in the Quran.
I happen to agree with this , even though I do not know Arabic well.
Peace.
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Peace loxbox
There are other reasons why Qoran( the last testament) was sent in Arabic, as well as "because the prophet was Arab" Quote from RK
Arabic is the most efficient language in the world, especially when it comes to the precise statement of laws. Since the Quran is a Statute Book, it was crucial that such laws must be clearly stated. God chose Arabic for His Final Testament because of the obvious reason that it is the most suitable language for that purpose. Arabic is unique in its efficiency and accuracy. For example, the word "they" in English does not tell you if "they" are males or females. In Arabic there is a "they" for the males, "HUM," and a "they" for the females, "HUNNA." There is even a "they" for two males, "HUMAA," and a "they" for two females, "HAATAAN." This feature does not exist in any other language in the world.The Last Testament? Bah....
Where does the quran claim that it's the 'last testament'?
Again "Testament (First,Second,Last,New, Old)" is a by product of judeo-xtians mindset...Arabic as 'most efficient' language?
Again.. let's define the clear objective criteria first.. what is 'efficient' language..??
Without those clear criteria the title of "Most efficient" cannot be decided objectively and it left to the subjective judgement of each person.Salam / Peace
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Again.. let's define the clear objective criteria first.. what is 'efficient' language..??
Without those clear criteria the title of "Most efficient" cannot be decided objectively and it left to the subjective judgement of each person.It is GOD himself who says that.
It seems that many people have fallen into the trap of rendering the word "3arabi" (ي as "Arabic". Basically, what you are doing there is no more than transliterating the word. The actual meaning of the word "3arabi" is eloquence or clarity or precision. Its opposite is "a3jami" , which means innacurate or lacking or struggling to convey.
Please look up this term in the lexicons, and you will see that I am not making this up. Perhaps member "Al-Kitab" can cast more light on this. When someone talks in a way that is not clear, or his alphabet lacks certain letters, or he mixes letters together and causes confusion in his speach, we say that his speech is "a3jami", meaning that it lacks the ability to convey perfect and clear meaning. On the other hand, when we say about someone (Translit A3raba'l Kalam), it means exactly that his speech has been made eloquent and precise.
Hence, Lisanu'l 3arabi means literally The Eloquent (Pefect/Precise) Tongue, which uses the full range of 28 alphebtical letters, 6 of which are NOT found in the other so-called "Semitic" dialects (including what they falsely call "Hebrew".
Many linguists and experts - even Western ones - in the field of phonetics have stated that the "3arabi" tongue of the Quran is the closest dialect to the proto-Semitic tongue, from which all other dialects branched. This subject is so huge, that it will require an entire e-book in itself.
This is rooted in the nonsensical belief that Arabic is a divine language.
It is not a divine language. It is however, the oldest. And there is plenty of proof for that. The problem is that no-one on this forum is willing to accept that Arabia was the cradle of the human civilazation. This is why the Qur'an tells us that Muhammad (P) was sent to preach in "Ummu'l Qura", meaning the Mother of Towns (i.e the first urban settlement ever established). Unless and until you accept this truth, you will keep on transliterating the word into "Arabic", without grasping the significance behind the word, just as you would transliterate the word into "jabal" without understanding that it means "mountain".
Peace...
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Peace Jafar.
Nothing is defined for you!
Why don t you tell us your own definitions so we can compare with others and check?
Questioning without giving a valid argument does not achieve anything!
If everything is made up , according to you, and you do not provide any justification most of the time, apart from ????, $$$$, ...business...
Yet some discussions have no relation to that at all, is there any truth out there?
As for Qoran is not the last testament/scripture, what does last/final prophet mean?
Are you expecting another scripture? On what ground?
May be we are defining last/final wrong?
Peace.
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In this case, the simplest explanation is that the vocalization marks are wrong. It should be the Romans won and afterwards they will lose. There is too much pre-quranic evidence of the word "rwm" as "Romans" in the epigraphic record, including the famous Namara inscription.
The great reading itself says that it was revealed in the language of the people of the messenger and not in somekind of divine language. In fact, the Arabic language, like any human language, contains many inconsistencies and those linguistic inconsistencies are obvious in the great reading. However, this is part of the amazing characteristics of the great reading. The god took an inconsistent human language and used it to deliver a consistent and very powerful message.
The word "jund" is Persian and as I said it has no verbal root in Arabic. On the other hand, it is documented in Persian inscriptions that predate the Arabic language.
Peace,
Ayman
Hey Ayman, peace
arab race never existed, the countries we call ARABS , from Morocco to Syrai, is the Land of Bani Israel, the ARABIC language never exiosted, it was invented in the same time as english, frensh, hebreu etc... 16th or 17th century
the language of the quran is something else, ARABIYAN means perfect, and not an arab as it is known in arabic language, what do you say about HOUKMAN AARABIYAN ??? - - 37 -
And like this we hosted it a "ARABIYAN" system/governance/ruling ???
in this verse, it is clear that Arabiyan has nothing to do with a race invented by the british/frensh called ARABS , nor a language, becase we can't say that Governance or the commands in ruling has a language , I don't know if you understand what i mean , but please, make a search in the word ARABUIYAN, and you will realise that it means PERFECT and not an ARAB
ARAB RACE and ARABIC LANGUAGE is the fabrication of the british/frensh in the 18th century , nothing more, there was never an arab race befoire the 19th century in Algeria, but now most people say we're ARABS, cause of the programmation of education , and endoctrinement , Egyptian Jamal Abdenasser player the biggest Zu=ionist part into creatin the Arabic race/language isdeology
ARABIYAN = PERFECT A RABI , because it is from RABI , peace
If youi ask Allah in the quran , What does mean ARABIYAN , he'll anwsered u already
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ARABIYAN Qur'an, without any deviance
Quran Arabiyan = no ctrookedness in it 3958 -
It is GOD himself who says that.
It seems that many people have fallen into the trap of rendering the word "3arabi" (ي as "Arabic". Basically, what you are doing there is no more than transliterating the word. The actual meaning of the word "3arabi" is eloquence or clarity or precision. Its opposite is "a3jami" , which means innacurate or lacking or struggling to convey.
Please look up this term in the lexicons, and you will see that I am not making this up. Perhaps member "Al-Kitab" can cast more light on this. When someone talks in a way that is not clear, or his alphabet lacks certain letters, or he mixes letters together and causes confusion in his speach, we say that his speech is "a3jami", meaning that it lacks the ability to convey perfect and clear meaning. On the other hand, when we say about someone (Translit A3raba'l Kalam), it means exactly that his speech has been made eloquent and precise.
Hence, Lisanu'l 3arabi means literally The Eloquent (Pefect/Precise) Tongue, which uses the full range of 28 alphebtical letters, 6 of which are NOT found in the other so-called "Semitic" dialects (including what they falsely call "Hebrew".
Many linguists and experts - even Western ones - in the field of phonetics have stated that the "3arabi" tongue of the Quran is the closest dialect to the proto-Semitic tongue, from which all other dialects branched. This subject is so huge, that it will require an entire e-book in itself.
It is not a divine language. It is however, the oldest. And there is plenty of proof for that. The problem is that no-one on this forum is willing to accept that Arabia was the cradle of the human civilazation. This is why the Qur'an tells us that Muhammad (P) was sent to preach in "Ummu'l Qura", meaning the Mother of Towns (i.e the first urban settlement ever established). Unless and until you accept this truth, you will keep on transliterating the word into "Arabic", without grasping the significance behind the word, just as you would transliterate the word into "jabal" without understanding that it means "mountain".
Peace...
You want etymology for this ??? ok
Arabi = pure / proper
Aajami = Melange / amalgam -
Peace Loxbox,
arab race never existed, the countries we call ARABS , from Morocco to Syrai, is the Land of Bani Israel, the ARABIC language never exiosted, it was invented in the same time as english, frensh, hebreu etc... 16th or 17th century
I am not talking about race. The great reading refers to "a'rab" as being the people who are not from the city. In other words, they are the dwellers of the wilderness.
As for the language, the great reading clearly states in 144 that all the god's messages are sent in the language of each messenger's people.
the language of the quran is something else, ARABIYAN means perfect, and not an arab as it is known in arabic language,
The word "arabi" can mean a lot of things. Including speaking in an uncivilized manner
One thing I don't think it means is "perfect". The word "a'jami", which seems to be its antonym doesn't mean "imperfect". Just because someone doesn't understand a language doesn't mean that what is being said is inherently unclear. To a non-speaker of a language, including the language of the great reading, it would seem like "perfect gibberish". So it is only "clear" as far as the receiver and doesn't say anything about the language itself. So to me if we we take this point of view then saying "arabi" it is like saying "native" or "natural" to the receiver.
what do you say about HOUKMAN AARABIYAN ??? - - 37 -
And like this we hosted it a "ARABIYAN" system/governance/ruling ??? in this verse, it is clear that Arabiyan has nothing to do with a race invented by the british/frensh called ARABS , nor a language, becase we can't say that Governance or the commands in ruling has a language , I don't know if you understand what i mean , but please, make a search in the word ARABUIYAN, and you will realise that it means PERFECT and not an ARAB
The "a'rab" described in the great reading are certainly not "perfect" people. They are however natural people who live in the wilderness
Perhaps the great reading is talking about natural rule or natural law.
ARAB RACE and ARABIC LANGUAGE is the fabrication of the british/frensh in the 18th century , nothing more, there was never an arab race befoire the 19th century in Algeria, but now most people say we're ARABS, cause of the programmation of education , and endoctrinement , Egyptian Jamal Abdenasser player the biggest Zu=ionist part into creatin the Arabic race/language isdeology
ARABIYAN = PERFECT A RABI , because it is from RABI , peaceThe term "arab" or "a'rab" is found in the great reading and it does refer to the people of the wilderness in contrast to civilized city people.
The term is also found in pre-quranic inscriptions, including the famous Namara inscription where it clearly refers to a group of people. The first line of the inscription refers to the king of "al'rb" (most likely king of "ala'rab" given the noted absence of the writing of the Alif both as a long vowel and occasionally even as a consonant in the inscription). So what was witten as was probably actually pronounced as
If youi ask Allah in the quran , What does mean ARABIYAN , he'll anwsered u already
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ARABIYAN Qur'an, without any deviance
Quran Arabiyan = no ctrookedness in it 3958Could it mean "a natural reading without crookedness"? In other words, it is natural and not prentious.
The meaning of "arabi" is a very interesting topic.
Peace,
Ayman
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Salam to All ,
First i suggest if administrator could create a new file / topic designed for linguistic , this is a huge branch that need a separate file , i have a lot useful information to share in that matter so we can discuss it all together.
Member Pazuzu and member Loxbox did rise one of the main points what i was about to say , i will develop and confirm some of the points that have been raised in this this post and in others inchallah.
Brother Ayman some of your claim in that topic is simply very very wrong and misleading about one of the major evidence of the Quran , and what you hold in that matter are simply some of orientalist views and claim in the past and nowday , the Arabic tongue ( ) is not sacred but its Rabani mean following in its very basic form and construction Allah's creation and order ( ر so its following the very natural order that is available in the physical systems same as ex automatic sytems ( nerveous sytem , bilogical system , climatical systms etc) , what i will post in that topic will show what i meant.
One of the major key to understand the topic of the "Tongue " in general and the "Arabic Tongue " in particular is to understand the following
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Is there a connection between sound ( phonetics) and the meaning or is it arbitrary ?
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How was the tongue developed in the beginning
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What does the word Arabi and Aa'jami stand for.
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wht doe the word "Al-kalimat " mean in the quran ?
5.Whats does the (initials ) in the begining of the verse stands for ?
** 1. Is there a connection between sound ( phonetics) and the meaning or is it arbitrary ?
The big misleading matter in term of studying linguistic is the claim about many academics that all language use (letters) arbitrary to name things , is that true about all (language) ?
First the term language is itself misleading when we classified the Arabic Tongue (Original /natural/physical/eloquent Tongue) as being a language .. Eloquent is Laek mean suitable and its from where also come the term likeness , i like your dress because "Laek" on you mean suits you well.Language / Loghah come from twitter/ Laghaw , i already posted the etymology of this word in the beginning of this thread , here its
language/ langue / logo / logic / / lagha / laghw / loghah "laghw" mean a not valuable speech not authentic , loghah mean language in modern arabic but in the original Arabic (the one used in the Quran ) is not considered as a language its a" tangue /lissan " the different between "lissan / tangue " and " language / loghah " is that language is based under no phonetic rules ,in the contrary "lissan tongue/ " is based through phonetic (sounds) orders and phonetic meanings structured in a objective order.
41-26 And those who disbelieve say, "Do not listen to this Qur'an and "Alghou " during it that perhaps you will overcome."
The disbelivers used to use language in Al-guran , mean they used not authentic original words , they are not naming thing by its very nature conforming word
The other misleading concept when stuying Arabic lingustic is that they are naming the phnetics / sounds , so when we have a sound like for ex "a" , they named it as " Alef " and so on for the other phonetics / sounds , when somone pronounce the sound "a" do you hear any sound like "fffff" or "LLL" so simply the names they give to the Arabic phonetic sound is arbitrary and misleading , misleading becouse by naming them they claim they are letters but in truth they are hiding the fact that they are not letters but they are sounds / phonetics , you will never think about it if you keep naming sounds by letters , the name of "a" is "a " not [" Alef " , and the name of "n " is "n " not "Noun " , the name of "K " is "K " not " Kaf " and so on for the other sounds.
Here is a table for Arabic (Original /Objective / Authentic / natural/ physical/ eloquent ) phonetics and its physical objective meaning
The physical objective indication of Arabic (original / Natural) Sounds
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a Sound indicating a light interrupted emergence
2
b Sound indicates a stable collection3
t Sound indicates a light stopped push4
th Sound indicates a sticked light push5
g Sound indicates an effort and intensity.6
h Sound indicates a vast and adjusted intense swing7
Kh Sound indicating looseness and freshness8
d Sound indicating a strong stopped push9
dh Sound indicates a sticked midst push10
R Sound indicates repetition11
z Sound indicating a joined prominence12
s Sound indicates a indefinite joined motion13
Sh Sound indicates spread and propagation14 .
S Sound indicating a specific joined motion15 .
dh Sound indicates a very strong stopped push16 .
tSound indicates a stopped midst push17 .
Dth Sound indicating a light sticked prominence18
aa? Sound indicating depth or profoundness19
ghSound indicates ambiguity or absence.20
f Sound indicates a bounded light open21
Q Sound indicates a severe cut or stop22 .
K Sound indicating a stop or a light pressure23 .
L Sound indicates a hold slow joined motion24
m Sound indicates a joined evidence collected25 .
n Sound indicates veil or hide26
H Sound indicates a ligh swing27 -
Sound indicates extension and straightness28
w Sound indicates a extended connection29
y Sounds indicates extended light effortWhat all this is used and stand for ?
These phonetics are the basic construction for any meaning , they have meaning in itself separated and when its joined together starting from ading two phenetics we come up with the the basic 2nd root source , the source of all roots and then by adding more phonetics we come to 3th root , 4th root , 5th root and six root , when new phnetics added to the 2nd root the meaning change slightly according to the meanign of the 3th phonetic added but also in the same time it keeps the basic meaning of the 2nd basic root , you will never ever find in arabic tongue a word that start with a phonetic/sound that doesn't have the indication in itself about the meaning of the entire word exthe sound "Q" known as "Al-kaf" , the indication of the sound from the table above say
21
Q Sound indicates a severe cut or stopYou will allways find the meaning of the severe cut or stop in word starting or ening by this sound , ex
Qef To stop
Qataa' to cut
Qasm to divide
Qadm to bite
Farq to split
Fatq to unseam
Shaq to crackin all these maning there is a severe cut or stop as you can see , i'll give more exemple later.
The word is built by phenetics that are in connection between each other and are with direct connection with the meaning that the word is describing , the connection between phenetics / sounds and the meaning/ words in the arabic tongue ( the one used in the quran ) is scientific not arbitrary the words in the original tongue are alive not dead they are folowing and getting life and enegry and meaning that exsist in sounds , there is a golden rule in that subject witch is one of the basic rule to understand the relation between words and the meaning in the arbic tongue
When the meaning change the form change accordignly
To be contunied .....
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Salam to All ,
I like what you did, but ofcourse , none of us is receiving WAHY, we all need to study and share, for , not sharing, makes knowlege "no sense" and also not sharing doesn't give you a chance of beign enriched, or corrected, and I appreciate what you do and the way you see language
In my research with a few friends, we came up with something, that you might consider
Allah asked Men to name things, and all things are named according to MENfor exemple
the letter RA , is most of the times linked with the fonction of the eye , ( perception, seen, looking etc... ) and because the fontion of the eye has a constant repeated image , therefore, it's RA , see and repeating , also , SA , or as it it known SAD, is linked ith the EAR, or the SOUND? what we hear is what we understand, therefore , the RA and SAD gives the ROUH, perfect perception, that is why the word BASAR , BA SA RA meaning hearing and seen , therefoer BASARA means comprehension, or perception
and so onthe work that you are doing, can be called ROUH AL QUDUSS , the sense of codes and if you get that, you get the true meaning of Quran words and sentences , inshallah
if you read for exemple, in english/frensh/spanish...etc the word RADAR , we all know what radar means, but in reality, the wword itself is unknown, what you are doing can confirm the transfer of technology, from MUSLIM states to europeen states in the 17th and 18th century , RA DAR = SEEN BACK , therefore RADAR is perfect quranic tongue , and has nothing to do with any frensh/english language, was radar a Muslim inven,tion in the past ?
let's take an exemple TELEcommmande, TELEphone , etc... the prefix tele , is no other word than the quranic word ATLOU , or TALA or TILAWA etc... TELEphone is ATLOU FOUH wich are two quranic words
there is one more think you have to take in consideration , is that the Quranic Letters, every letter has it's symetric letter, or oppposite letter, for exemple, the letter BA is complete opposite of the letter MA, as ABA means father ( male ) OMM means a ( femele ) mother, or Mukaa = Mockery while Bukaa means Crying , two complete opposite words because of the letter B and M
I hope we all take this side of language in consideration so we can come up with meanings of words from the quran, using letters and the fabrication of the word
technique used in frensh and english, HADHARA MAWT combines give MOUHTADHAR and so on
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Peace Jafar.
Nothing is defined for you!
Why don t you tell us your own definitions so we can compare with others and check?
Well since you and anybody else here also can't define the exact criterias for 'efficient' language.. then why bother claiming it as such????
Questioning without giving a valid argument does not achieve anything!
I'm not the one who propose language X as 'the most efficient language'.. thus I don't need to give any argument..
If everything is made up , according to you, and you do not provide any justification most of the time, apart from ????, $$$$, ...business...
I should add one more thing "HUMAN PRIDE"... Pride of their social identity, pride of their language / culture, pride of their nations/homeland/tribe/race etc..
As for Qoran is not the last testament/scripture, what does last/final prophet mean?
No more prophet... what else could that mean?
Are you expecting another scripture? On what ground?
Revelation can only be carried by 'scripture' is a typical Judeo-Xtianity mindset..
People need to have a 'scripture' in order to be saved is a typical Ancient Egyptians, Judeo-Xtianity mindset.. it actually started by Egyptian's priest to make $$$ from the 'book of the dead'...Watch this and you'll understand how this 'we need a scripture in order to be saved' kind of thing started..
http//www.youtube.com/watch?v=m2-0lfJQGGs&feature=related
Salam / Peace
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Peace Jafar.
Thank you for your answer.
I appreciate you may not need a scripture. However I know for sure that I am going to be held accountable before my creator.
Those who make $$$$ out of any scripture and those who follow them GOD is their judge.
I am odd, I have no doubt about the Resurrection
463 Surely those who say? Our Lord is GOD? then( try their best) lead a righteous life, ( and are not arrogant to repent and submit!) will have no fear nor will they grieve.?
In Peace and friendship.