Rashad Khalifa Exposed
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Salaam Mazhar,
I do not know if you misunderstood me or if I misunderstood you.
I do believe that Muhammad wrote the Quran with his own hands, but that he was illiterate at the time he received the revelation.
Peace.Pierre
Ok, you have divided into two points in time.
Can you ask someone presenting him a book that "you read it" who does not know reading the text?
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Salaam Mazhar sahib,
I am bit confused, I think it was not any book that was presented! those were short verses with gaps that were presented and then memorized and written down and book shape was given at much later stage.
Second by unlettered what is meant?
not knowing how to Read?
Write?
or Both?Thanks and Ramadan Mubarak
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Ok, you have divided into two points in time.
Can you ask someone presenting him a book that "you read it" who does not know reading the text?
Salaam Mazhar,
(294 You did not recite before it (the Quran) any book (?Kitabeen? indefinite in Arabic), nor did you write any with your right hand?.
(Isaiah 2910) For the Lord has poured over you a spirit of deep sleep, He has shut your eyes, the prophets, and He has covered your heads, the seers. (2911) The entire vision will be to you like the words of a sealed book, which when they give it to the one who is literate, saying, ?Please read this?, he will say, ?I cannot, for it is sealed? (2912) Then the book will be given to the one who is illiterate, saying ?Please read this?, and he will say ?I cannot read?.
The above two verses from the Quran and the Bible make it clear that Muhammad was illiterate when he received the revelation.
In sura 96, God commands Muhammad "Iqra!" (Recite!); that is to say without a script, because no physical book fell down from the sky.
In 964, God says that he is "the one who taught through the means of the pen", meaning that muhammad was going to learn how to write and read, since he couldn't "recite before it (the Quran) any book" nor "write with his right hand" (294 prior to receiving the revelation.
Since 2948 says "before it", it suggests that "after it" he learned how to write and read.
Overall, it cannot be more clear that Muhammad was illiterate on the Night of Decree when he received the Quran.
Peace and God bless.Pierre
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Peace 6619.
could also mean " You did not read/preach any book/scripture , nor did you write any book/scripture before this one."
This would not apply that you could not read or write to get by in life (ie illiterate)?
peace.
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Salaam Mazhar,
(294 You did not recite before it (the Quran) any book (?Kitabeen? indefinite in Arabic), nor did you write any with your right hand?.
(Isaiah 2910) For the Lord has poured over you a spirit of deep sleep, He has shut your eyes, the prophets, and He has covered your heads, the seers. (2911) The entire vision will be to you like the words of a sealed book, which when they give it to the one who is literate, saying, ?Please read this?, he will say, ?I cannot, for it is sealed? (2912) Then the book will be given to the one who is illiterate, saying ?Please read this?, and he will say ?I cannot read?.
The above two verses from the Quran and the Bible make it clear that Muhammad was illiterate when he received the revelation.
In sura 96, God commands Muhammad "Iqra!" (Recite!); that is to say without a script, because no physical book fell down from the sky.
In 964, God says that he is "the one who taught through the means of the pen", meaning that muhammad was going to learn how to write and read, since he couldn't "recite before it (the Quran) any book" nor "write with his right hand" (294 prior to receiving the revelation.
Since 2948 says "before it", it suggests that "after it" he learned how to write and read.
Overall, it cannot be more clear that Muhammad was illiterate on the Night of Decree when he received the Quran.
Peace and God bless.Pierre
Very good post @6619!
I like it very much when Qur'an is linked with the Bible, because Qur'an is confirming the Bible which is the ultimate foundation of God's message.I also agree that Muhammad got the order ""Iqra!" (Recite!); that is to say without a script"" and, in some special way, he learned to write and read some special, or particular, form of Arabic, new, "holy", language, different from vulgar Arabic.
Maybe in that sense he was illiterate to that special holy language, but he knew the ordinary, vulgar and common Arabic, since he was a merchant and a salesman, after all. -
Maybe in that sense he was illiterate to that special holy language, but he knew the ordinary, vulgar and common Arabic, since he was a merchant and a salesman, after all.
I know lot of people here in my country and abroad who are purely illiterate and are good, very good salesmen and merchant,
So this theory holds no air!
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Hi @6619
is that article published on your site? (you said it should be August the 14th)
What is it's title?
Thank you -
Hi @6619
is that article published on your site? (you said it should be August the 14th)
What is it's title?
Thank youSalaam dear brother,
I posted the articles on http//www.islamrevolution.org/ on the Night of decree as planned.
I started a thread on this forum the next day regarding the "Miracle of the Word Day".
I suggest you check the following article
Miracle of the Word Day http//www.islamrevolution.org/miracleofthewordday.htm
Land/Sea ratio http//www.islamrevolution.org/landsearatio.htm
Miracle of 19 http//www.islamrevolution.org/miracleof19.htm
and you haven't already
Miracle of Laylatul qadr http//www.islamrevolution.org/miracleoflaylatulqadr.htm
These articles provide historical proofs that the Qur'an is the Word of God and is coded mathematically far beyond what any creature can achieve.
God bless you.Pierre
Pierre
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Yes, I saw it later.
Thank you for the update.
God bless!
sun