If "Only Allah", then "Allah Alone" is our watchword
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Prophet Messenger He is not a lettered-personality like commonplace
7.157 Those who follow the Enlightened@ prophet messenger of Us, will find description of him in their Taurat and Injeel he will enjoin upon them all good deeds and forbid them from evil works; and he will make lawful all good foods; and prevent them the evil foods; and he will lessen their heaviest burdens and remove their slavishness; so whoever believes in him, and dignifies him, and helps him and follows the enlightenment bestowed with him will alone be the victors.
@ The Prophet in the above verse is described as not a believer in the litters of the man invented ?lettered-knowledge?, but a believer in and follower of the Wisdom of Allah; and Allah has granted him what he pursued and thus describes His Prophet-messenger as unlettered but Enlightened.
7.158 Say, ?O mankind, verily I am the messenger to you all from Allah; unto Him belongs the kingdom of the skies and the earth; and there is no God but He; He brings forth life and He causes death - and therefore believe in the Enlightened prophet messenger; and he too believes in Allah and in His Signs; and follow him alone that you may be guided.?
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Peace,
I don't know why you translate l-nabiya l-umiya as the enlightened prophet. In my understanding 'ummy' has no meaning of illiteracy or enlightenment at all.
Crossheck with 320, 622, 278-79
I think those verses will point out to you it can't be translated as enlightened nor illiterate. If it's not obvious to you I will elaborate on the contradiction.
My understanding of 'ummy' is gentile.
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Root likely used; Alif-Meem-Waw, as per ancient lexicon. The root can refer to a female because the word actually means descriptively "be thereof" as indicating wo-man/mother because women give birth and you come out of her as an individual.
According to the lexicons the root can also refer to imitation and mode of being and to "be thereof" as a collective and why ummah has the same originating root. You can easily verify my claim using a lexicon like Lane's.
Any kind of illiteracy or any alike connotations has no basis. The root simply means "of whom one is".
In 7157 the word refers to "those who emulate (imitate) the prophet messenger" in the context. It could give fuel to the sectarian crowd (so-called sunnah), but their derived behavior is taken from fabrications and fabricated interpretations of authentic sources (e.g. Quran).
The interpretation follow/imitate has basis in lexicons and is not my conjecture as people are so prone to accuse me of and so does "to be thereof" (mother).
7157, after further brief analysis, continually speaks of the adherence to what was decreed (maketoba) in all sources of revelation. The decree never changes.
Salaam
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My understanding of 'ummy' is gentile.
Your understanding from the "meaning" of the word 'ummy' is gentile; before that,
What is the 'meaning' of the word "meaning"? What do you mean by the word meaning?When Allah says 'a word', to know the meaning of it, you look into your own man-made dictionaries wherein are a bunch of meanings called synonyms or thesauruses out of which you shall choose a right word fitting to the past contexts and dead situations; but if the contexts and prevailing situations are of paramount importance in choosing a correct meaning, then with Allah is the truth of all the events, and the eventualities of them all; for it is with Allah the past of us, the present of us and the future of us and the meaning is the comprehension of the wholesomeness of these - the Reality. Before this reality your contextual and situational extracts, using your external poor sensorium are nothing but deception; your understanding shall never carry you forward to nor will it take you closer to the truth.
The intended use of a word by Allah is to gain from the Truth that is to know from Himself; this is what is intended of communication with the wholesomeness of the words used in a verse for it encompasses all the three worlds past, present, and future which is not a possibility at all with us; so we have to be humble before Allah when we say "I Know; I will teach you." I think Allah will not like us claiming that we know all things, especially His words and His verses in His Quran.
Coming to the man invented, lifeless and deathward dictionary knowledge, "ummy" means gentile; what is the meaning of the word gentile here? It means a person belonging to one of the pagan groups different to that of the Jewish pagans. So what Allah intends for man is to import from one's own inferences with reference to his reflections encompassing the three spacial times, when Allah used the word 'ummy'. From the man made dictionaries we see Muhammad an ummy i.e., a pagan with a difference... Do you reflect any further than that? If you do reflect further, then you will arrive at driving yourself closer to Enlightenment.
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When I say meaning, I'm talking about semantics that are accessible to mankind. God does not speak words to us directly. Neither did God talk directly to Muhammad. When the words of Quran were delivered to Muhammad, God used a messenger/malaika (in contrary to Musa, to whom God spoke directly). In Quran itself we find that this Quran was delivered in arab, containing clear signs. The semantics are those that pre-existed Quran/Islam and were used by the mailaika messenger sent to muhammad. The etymology of many words in Quran is historically older than their usage in Quran. Thus, I can be confident in concluding their meaning is accessible.
Gentile means those who aren't jewish in the Quranic context. Only in this understanding the context will reveal itself to you. Quran makes this distinction for good reason. The jews, are asked/reminded to uphold an existing older convenant by accepting this messenger and his message. Gentiles do not have such a convenant with God and are therefor addressed seperately.
I don't idolize muhammad, maybe he was enlightened, I can't tell from what I read in Quran. But referring to muhammad as a gentile is significant. His submission to God was not bound by older convenants but by his own choice and submission to God. It is even more significant to realize why God chose a gentile as his messenger. This is a clear message to the jews (for not upholding the convenant).
Peace
ps if you are sticking to an interpretation of 'enlightenment' one would expect the enlightened prophet to be Musa, not Muhammad. As God conversed directly with the first, not the latter.
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2.253 Of those messengers, some of whom We have caused to excel others, and of whom there are some unto whom Allah has spoken to, while some of them He exalted in degree...
Please say to me who are all those messengers Allah had directly talked to...
2.186 When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed very close I listen to of every suppliant when he calls on Me Let them also, with a will, Listen to My call, and believe in Me That they may walk in the right way.
Have you ever believed you shall listen to Allah's call? Should you not have listened to? And had you listened to, then this part of communication would not have found place here.
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2.253 Of those messengers, some of whom We have caused to excel others, and of whom there are some unto whom Allah has spoken to, while some of them He exalted in degree...
Please say to me who are all those messengers Allah had directly talked to...
2.186 When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed very close I listen to of every suppliant when he calls on Me Let them also, with a will, Listen to My call, and believe in Me That they may walk in the right way.
Have you ever believed you shall listen to Allah's call? Should you not have listened to? And had you listened to, then this part of communication would not have found place here.
I only know of dialogues between God and Musa in Quran. Understand what dialogue means. This is bi-directional communication. 2.186 is one directional communication.
When we call onto God, God listens. This is different from God speaking directly to us. The call God makes in 2.186 is not verbally spoken to us directly. Most of us have Quran for this. Quran only has a few examples of people being directly spoken to by God. I'm not one of them - it is very exceptional. I'm not a rasul.
In Quran you can find dialogue between Musa and God. There is no dialogue between Muhammad and God. So even prophethood does not imply God speaks to you directly. To Muhammad God sent a messenger instead of talking directly to him. Why would God send a messenger to Muhammad if they were able to have a dialogue such as with Musa?
Peace
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In a dialogue will you not listen? When Allah asks you to listen to Him, is He not so close to you wanting to speak with you, by keeping Himself nearer than your life vein 50/16? What difference do you make between dialogue and hearing between person to person as through physical means? And heart to heart communication between Allah and us, human beings all the time for He wants to guide us by His Means. Please say the difference.
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Root likely used; Alif-Meem-Waw, as per ancient lexicon. The root can refer to a female because the word actually means descriptively "be thereof" as indicating wo-man/mother because women give birth and you come out of her as an individual.
According to the lexicons the root can also refer to imitation and mode of being and to "be thereof" as a collective and why ummah has the same originating root. You can easily verify my claim using a lexicon like Lane's.
Any kind of illiteracy or any alike connotations has no basis. The root simply means "of whom one is".
In 7157 the word refers to "those who emulate (imitate) the prophet messenger" in the context. It could give fuel to the sectarian crowd (so-called sunnah), but their derived behavior is taken from fabrications and fabricated interpretations of authentic sources (e.g. Quran).
The interpretation follow/imitate has basis in lexicons and is not my conjecture as people are so prone to accuse me of and so does "to be thereof" (mother).
7157, after further brief analysis, continually speaks of the adherence to what was decreed (maketoba) in all sources of revelation. The decree never changes.
Salaam
In hebrew am is the word indeed for mother. But in OT the word is most often used in the meaning of nation/nations. Nations, in contrast to 'the' nation/people - namely the jewish people (israelites).
Peace
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I only know of dialogues between God and Musa in Quran.
And so Who knows who are the other messengers Allah had talked to directly, except Allah? Therefore what is there in Quran is an inducement for you to turn to Allah for more, and speak with Him directly for more; and wait in patience expecting to listen to Him when He speaks to you heart to heart. Turn to Allah and turn off your dictionaries.
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In a dialogue will you not listen? When Allah asks you to listen to Him, is He not so close to you wanting to speak with you, by keeping Himself nearer than your life vein 50/16? What difference do you make between dialogue and hearing between person to person as through physical means? And heart to heart communication between Allah and us, human beings all the time for He wants to guide us by His Means. Please say the difference.
Look up the verses in Quran that describe how God talks to Musa, asking him what his staff is for. Musa literally hears God voice, he can hear every word of this question in a verbal format. He does not see God, though he can hear every word God is saying. Quran describes this method of communication as 'from behind a veil'. It is one of three methods how God communicates with human beings. In those verses I'm referring to, Musa replies to God. God can hear Musa and replies to him.
Compare this to the verses mentioning Muhammad. It is not a dialogue with God in any understanding. Muhammad was asked to obey the messenger (angel) and submit. Outside these instructions he received from the angel/messenger, Quran tells us Muhammad erred and was criticized for it.
If you claim he was enlightened, how would you explain him erring and being criticized for it? I think you are still somewhat idolizing Muhammad if you think there is evidence inside Quran of him being enlightened.
God calls on all of us to submit and obey the message. That's what I'm trying to do. If you take instructions from enlightened messages you receive in your heart, how do you know what is from God and how to distinct those from the whispers of shaitan?
Obviously one can't. Therefor I obey the message, being Quran.
Peace
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And so Who knows who are the other messengers Allah had talked to directly, except Allah? Therefore what is there in Quran is an inducement for you to turn to Allah for more, and speak with Him directly for more; and wait in patience expecting to listen to Him when He speaks to you heart to heart. Turn to Allah and turn off your dictionaries.
Look at the verbs being used (difference between "give words"/"speaking". Most likely God conversed with other prophets I'm unaware of. But certainly Muhammad was not one of them.
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http//www.everyayah.com/data/images_png/42_51.png
Muhammad was given words by a messenger God sent. Not talking from behind a veil.
Peace
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To me the concept of people who claim God talks to them directly is completely strange. When I see others claim such things, most of the time I think it's either pretentiousness or a mental disorder.
Unless of course they prove themselves to be messengers from God. I consider Muhammad to be a messenger from God.
Peace
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Look up the verses in Quran that describe how God talks to Musa, asking him what his staff is for. Musa literally hears God voice, he can hear every word of this question in a verbal format. He does not see God, though he can hear every word God is saying. Quran describes this method of communication as 'from behind a veil'. It is one of three methods how God communicates with human beings. In those verses I'm referring to, Musa replies to God. God can hear Musa and replies to him.
42.51
It is not for any human being that Allah should speak to him except through Wahi or from behind a partition or that He sends a messenger to reveal, by His permission, what He wills. Indeed, He is Most High and Wise.runninglikezebras, tell me after reading the following, what means of literal, physical nature that Allah communicates with any man on the earth, except your own take that which you believe. When Musa cannot see physical God, do you imagine for Him a physical mouth, eyes and things like that? You aught to cite reference from Quran to prove that Allah speaks literally too. Please read the only 3 ways by which Allah communicates with the humans.
It is not for any human being that Allah should speak to him except -
Musa was a human being like the rest of every human beingThere are 3 ways Allah does speak to every human being
- Allah should speak to him except through Wahi as direct inspiration from Allah -
Allah should speak to every prophet i.e., human beings through Wahi
Or,
- That Allah should speak to them from behind a veil -
Allah speaks to every human being through the Messengers from Malayika, who are veiled to man's physical eyes.
Or,
- That He should send a human messenger who reveals the words of Allah
Apart from the 3 ways I have cited, kindly cite from your side the ayats that say Allah speaks to the ears of the human beings through the words and syllables uttered through the mouth.
Compare this to the verses mentioning Muhammad. It is not a dialogue with God in any understanding. Muhammad was asked to obey the messenger (angel) and submit. Outside these instructions he received from the angel/messenger, Quran tells us Muhammad erred and was criticized for it. If you claim he was enlightened, how would you explain him erring and being criticized for it? I think you are still somewhat idolizing Muhammad if you think there is evidence inside Quran of him being enlightened.
Are you ignorantly or wrongly insinuating Muhammad when Muhammad is not mentioned by name in any of the ayats you have suggested?
- Allah should speak to him except through Wahi as direct inspiration from Allah -
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Yes,
And I wrote that AM has a meaning as a nation of people because they believe in the same derived customs and culture. This is because AM means "are thereof" as a collective. The same reason why it is referring to mother in some instances.
In the highlighted passage it refers to "be of the messenger prophet" as in mode of being and as a collective who follow him.
Salaam
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Yes,
And I wrote that AM has a meaning as a nation of people because they believe in the same derived customs and culture. This is because AM means "are thereof" as a collective. The same reason why it is referring to mother in some instances.
In the highlighted passage it refers to "be of the messenger prophet" as in mode of being and as a collective who follow him.
Salaam
Well no, it means the gentile prophet obviously. Just look at the many occurences where it is used as community/nation/people. Look at how Quran describes the jews in contrast. Ummi is, just like in OT, people in contrast to Gods chosen people, the israelites.
Peace
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42.51
It is not for any human being that Allah should speak to him except through Wahi or from behind a partition or that He sends a messenger to reveal, by His permission, what He wills. Indeed, He is Most High and Wise.runninglikezebras, tell me after reading the following, what means of literal, physical nature that Allah communicates with any man on the earth, except your own take that which you believe. When Musa cannot see physical God, do you imagine for Him a physical mouth, eyes and things like that? You aught to cite reference from Quran to prove that Allah speaks literally too. Please read the only 3 ways by which Allah communicates with the humans.
It is not for any human being that Allah should speak to him except -
Musa was a human being like the rest of every human beingThere are 3 ways Allah does speak to every human being
- Allah should speak to him except through Wahi as direct inspiration from Allah -
Allah should speak to every prophet i.e., human beings through Wahi
Wrong conclusion to say this was possible with every prophet. If so why were messengers/angels used?
Or,
- That Allah should speak to them from behind a veil -
Allah speaks to every human being through the Messengers from Malayika, who are veiled to man's physical eyes.
Wrong understanding. This means literally speaking (like to Musa).
Or,
- That He should send a human messenger who reveals the words of Allah
You are confused brother. This category involves a malaika messenger. It's not referring to human messengers.
Apart from the 3 ways I have cited, kindly cite from your side the ayats that say Allah speaks to the ears of the human beings through the words and syllables uttered through the mouth.
(20.16). What is that in your right hand, O Moses? (20.17)? He said ?This is my staff; I recline on it, I beat down with it tree leaves for my sheep, and I use it for other things? (20.1. He said ?Throw it down, O Moses!?
Are you ignorantly or wrongly insinuating Muhammad when Muhammad is not mentioned by name in any of the ayats you have suggested?
Brother, learn to read. Also, find me one verse that is similar to 20.16-18 involving Muhammad. Find me one verse in which God speaks to Muhammad without using an angel/messenger. Brother, those verses don't exist. You can't substantiate what you are trying to project. God speaking to Muhammad is nowhere in Quran. It's time you face this truth.
ps its kind of funny you cite the exact same verse I gave you earlier, and you start distorting it
Peace
- Allah should speak to him except through Wahi as direct inspiration from Allah -
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The Rabb does not normally speak to humans yes, but that does not mean The Rabb is not present and with a person. The Rabb does not have to speak to humans because the ascended are obedient and treading the image.
And the one who can emulate ALLAH is in ALLAH.
And there must be interpretation problems because GOD is seen talking to Abraham in parts of Quran because the 'qul' word is being used. And not only there but 'qul' is used other times as well.
Salaam
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Wrong conclusion to say this was possible with every prophet. If so why were messengers/angels used?
Wrong understanding. This means literally speaking (like to Musa).
You are confused brother. This category involves a malaika messenger. It's not referring to human messengers
Who is right and who is wrong is known only to Allah; and only Allah Knows the real meanings of His ayats 3/7; so what is expected of us is to listen the speeches carefully and intently and choose the best of them all 39/18 - such are knowledgeable ones and it is them Allah conducts in righteousness. If you abide and honour these ayats then you have not read Quran to learn from Allah, but to argue.
Brother, learn to read.
The other way is the best to satisfy Allah and to help Allah teach you directly through wahi.
(20.16). What is that in your right hand, O Moses? (20.17)? He said ?This is my staff; I recline on it, I beat down with it tree leaves for my sheep, and I use it for other things? (20.1. He said ?Throw it down, O Moses!?
If Musa was one to one with Allah in person, and all alone, and in total seclusion from the rest of the population, then the conversation would have been like this (20.16). What is that in your right hand?" ?This is my staff; I recline on it, I beat down with it tree leaves for my sheep, and I use it for other things? (20.1. He said ?Throw it down!". Calling by Name, "O Musa!" is to draw Musa's attention to the Wahi of Allah as and when He intends to convey the message, while he is in other activities. There is a lot to read to learn here; this is not possible until your line of approach is "learn to read".
Also, find me one verse that is similar to 20.16-18 involving Muhammad. Find me one verse in which God speaks to Muhammad without using an angel/messenger. Brother, those verses don't exist. You can't substantiate what you are trying to project. God speaking to Muhammad is nowhere in Quran. It's time you face this truth.
ps its kind of funny you cite the exact same verse I gave you earlier, and you start distorting it
I will answer to you when your occupancy and mood is changed to read to learn
And I want to know you if you read and re-read to learn from the ayat cited below"
2.253 Of those messengers, some of whom We have caused to excel others, and of whom there are some unto whom Allah has spoken to, while some of them He exalted in degree...
Please say to me who are all those messengers Allah had directly talked to...