The meaning of Islam
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The two jeems in hajja join together from an orginal hajaja or hajija or even hajuja (say hajija, hajaja or hajuja really fast 10 times and see how it blends into hajja, that is why the words that have two last radicals that are the same letter blended into a doubled letter) It is also why they separate when you conjugate the letter into different froms like hijaaj or hajeej or ihtijaaj.) Just as this happens in words like yartadidu and its equivalent yartaddu. haarirun joins to become haarrun and daawlilun joins to become daawllun, etc. etc.
This is the morphology of Classical Arabic and there are plenty of examples in good grammar books of two equal forms and verbs that show this same pattern of assimilation. I can't say if the pronouns came from three letter roots, but they are pronouns.
Arabic verbs always are based off of 3 or 4 letter roots. There are not two letter or 5 letter roots of words.
Godbless,
Anwar -
sorry, verb TO BE in arabic is "TAKOON"
Translate 'karuma' or 'salima' into English please.
LOL bro, you created the wazn on the english letters
well Sillim wazn, is not as you said it is with a shadda on the second letter, and btw I only talk by grammar in arabic, at least I learnt it and it seems you didn't, LOL
i found it also funny that you want me to step out of what I learnt at schoold for 12 years in egypt and follow you who hardly knows the arabic grammar, not sure if you even speak arabic
You know what I meant. I really just don't know how to put Arabic characters on the computer. In fi' 'il the ' stands for ain. It really isn't as funny as you think. And I'm really getting the impression that you are just arrogant and rude the more I talk to you. I deal with pricks all day, please don't add yourself to that list.
If you would open up your eyes and open up your ears and listen maybe you might see that what you learned in Egypt for 12 years is not all of the Arabic language. Take that form that I gave you fi'-'il. Look it up and see what it can imply. These are innate forms in Classical Arabic that usually have specific meanings. Yes sillim means stairs. But follow it's Arabic patterns it could have also had another meaning amongst the people who spoke the langauge of the Quran. Remember that God sends messages to people in their langauge. So the Quran spoke Muhammad's language (just eloquently), not the other way around. Conisder the wors like hasnaa', siddeeq etc, etc. that are based off of "unusual forms". Seeing that fa'l in many cases equals faa'il like abd and other words an that even the form fa'il like wajil exist that are just shortenings of the long form 'faa'il' take into considerations that the form fi''il even though it may be rare is a shortening of fi' 'eel'
without tashkil, there are many arabic roots that are two letters, i will try to find a few in the books I have, but these books for you are corrupted right?
You keep talking about how you studied grammar for so long, but you still don't get it. language are verbal before they are ever written. The Arabic system of writing (which you feel so attached to and vested in) is based off the Aramaic, and follows in the same traditons that the reader has to already be familiar with the words and must be able to sense the context in order to read correctly. Hajja, dawlla, shabba, shanna whether you see two radicals at the end or not has two radicals. If you didn't double the sound at the end it wouldn't be a word at all.
you missed me here, i meant the origin of the prefection ion the language, not how the arabs used to talk back then
The Quran didn't perfect the language at all. It use the language of Muhammad his people in an eloquent way to communicate the message of God. That is it. Don't accredit superpowers to the Quran and don't assume that the Quran revolutionized Arabic just because God revealed it in Arabic. God just used the langauge of the ancient Arabs to reveal his message in an eloquent way.
the Quran Arabic is superior to whatever they used to talk back then, this is their own admission in the hadith that you are making it sound that you read it
So just because you and the people who wrote the Hadeeth believed in its eloquence and practically worshipped the book should I also believe what they believed. I believe that the book is eloquent indeed but when you put something up on a pedestool like that and you are committed to that belief, everything you do, even the language that you speak will be not equal to it (in your head). Leave I'jaaz alone. If that is all that you learned in 12 years then I really can't rely on what you say.
utter BS
the Quran is very advanced Arabic up to this very moment
Just because it was written in ancient Arabic doesn't mean that it's ideas are limited to those ancient times.
Ok anwar thank you, but I donlt lie though
No, thank you for atleast sharing your ideas with me. Maybe one day we can see each other eye to eye. I don't believe that you are lying I think you just have the wrong set of glasses on, so you are seeing things in the wrong light.
Godbless,
Anwar -
Hello
I checked the grammars book I have and found that the root can be 3,4,5,6 letters, i will bring some examples later
Salam
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Huwa doesn't count. I'm talking about verbs not pronouns.
Fine, but that's not what you said in the first place
No Arabic word has 2 letters as a root. IT is always 3, one letter is just doubled.
And baab is based on baa, waw, baa (in that order, it is three letters it just has two baa's), and hajj is based off of haa, jeem, jeem (the jeem is doubled it is really two jeems.)
Not really. In classical Arabic, shaddas don't even exist. The word hajj springs springs from Hebrew chet - gimel or chag (meaning festival or holiday) and is pronounced like doubling the ladder whilst its not really a matter of two letters. It works very much like English it that could fully accurate be transcribed as itt while its not a matter of an actual three lettered word.
When it comes to b?b, I assume you "traced" this root from openburhan (which by the way is an excellent tool)? I can assure you there is nothing implying that there's a waw hidden somewhere in the origin of that word. B?b is also just b?' - b?' in classical Arabic. The later alef was inserted to clarify the stress and to separate it from a possible babbHope this helps,
S -
I checked the grammars book I have and found that the root can be 3,4,5,6 letters, i will bring some examples later
You still claim to be a native Arab speaker?
hey smart arse, how old are ya?
you sound like a kiddo anyway, i guess i have to ignore your bum
c u
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"you sound like a kiddo anyway, i guess i have to ignore your bum "
With this type of lingo-
Perfectly possible to lose all credibility according to my understandings of the quran Br.
Sincerely.
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"you sound like a kiddo anyway, i guess i have to ignore your bum "
With this type of lingo-
Perfectly possible to lose all credibility according to my understandings of the quran Br.
Sincerely.
oh come on
what creditability you are talking about exactly?
i said there is roots of 2,3,4,5 letters
the kiddo said there is 3,4,5
someone added that there is also 2 letters root
i confirmed and said there is 3,4,5,6
what is the kiddo problem exactly other than being a kiddo?, and it seems you are trying hard since i jouined to join him, fine you joined him
oh yeh he meant when i said there 2 letters root and there is not?
well he didn't say that there is roots with six letters either lol
I hope you like this lingo and don't forget to shove that crediabilty you are talking about into some place you like
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I checked the grammars book I have and found that the root can be 3,4,5,6 letters, i will bring some examples later
You still claim to be a native Arab speaker? P
hey smart arse, how old are ya?
you sound like a kiddo anyway, i guess i have to ignore your bum
...still you don't.
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I checked the grammars book I have and found that the root can be 3,4,5,6 letters, i will bring some examples later
You still claim to be a native Arab speaker? P
hey smart arse, how old are ya?
you sound like a kiddo anyway, i guess i have to ignore your bum
...still you don't. )
you mean not ignore your bum?
well, it is not offical yet but it is in the process of being so
let me give you the reasons before it is offical
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you called me a liar directly, then
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you called me a liar indirectly
and honestly anwar, you won't be able to take my punches if i decide to punch you, but i decided to ignore your bum instead
now it is offical unless you say sorry for calling me a liar
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Hey mate ,
you said
"I hope you like this lingo and don't forget to shove that crediabilty you are talking about into some place you like"
I think you won't like that though.
Thanks for the offer.
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Hey mate ,
you said
"I hope you like this lingo and don't forget to shove that crediabilty you are talking about into some place you like"
I think you won't like that though.
Thanks for the offer.
LOL
Well, possibly we have some sort of misunderstanding here, we have confused the public arena indeed
how about you state where you like to shove it and i will confirm if it will be allowed wink
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Peace be upon you all,
Insults, punches?
All in the course of discussing PEACE? Ridiculous. Why waste our time?
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Peace be upon you Someone,
Would you defend yourself if attacked?
Yes, that would be "keeping the peace", and hopefully my mental state would still remain at peace while I am defending myself so that I dont go overboard and kill the person, which might happen if I let my emotions have free reign. Peaceful mindstate must always be kept as best as possible.
Peace upon you idolfree1,
So it is only a matter of word's choice, but we are basically talking about the same thing ) as long as you are keeping your god-given right to defend yourself and yours...
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Peace be upon you Someone,
I apologize but I got lost. I will state that we agree if you are stating that the goal is to remain at peace at all times, even when we have to defend ourselves because we dont want to be revengeful, only protect, thats why we are never aggressors.
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Peace be upon you Someone,
I apologize but I got lost. I will state that we agree if you are stating that the goal is to remain at peace at all times, even when we have to defend ourselves because we dont want to be revengeful, only protect, thats why we are never aggressors.
Peace be upon you idolfree1,
Indeed, the goal is to remain at peace at all times even when defending ourselves, not being revengeful nor agressors.
On the other hand, we should also keep acquiring knowledge (and by implication strength), in order to keep our means of defense up-to-date, be it physical or mental. The enemies of the god won't miss an occasion to have the upper hand.
The god the peace is also the all-mighty, the most powerful.
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Ahmed,
and honestly anwar, you won't be able to take my punches if i decide to punch you, but i decided to ignore your bum instead
now it is offical unless you say sorry for calling me a liar
WHoah! How did I get pulled into that? I didn't make those comments.
Secondly, El-Aziz
Not really. In classical Arabic, shaddas don't even exist. The word hajj springs springs from Hebrew chet - gimel or chag (meaning festival or holiday) and is pronounced like doubling the ladder whilst its not really a matter of two letters. It works very much like English it that could fully accurate be transcribed as itt while its not a matter of an actual three lettered word.
When it comes to b?b, I assume you "traced" this root from openburhan (which by the way is an excellent tool)? I can assure you there is nothing implying that there's a waw hidden somewhere in the origin of that word. B?b is also just b?' - b?' in classical Arabic. The later alef was inserted to clarify the stress and to separate it from a possible babbHere is where you get Classical Arabic and the developed script for classical Arabic confused. When I speak about Classical Arabic and it's roots understand the language and the script are 2 different things. Baab always came from a three letter root which shows in how it is changed into 'bawwaab' to mean 'gate-keeper' and bawaabat to mean 'gate'. The native speaker of Classical Arabic understood that when he said baab with the emphasis in the middle that here is an alif in there that can transform to a waw or a yaa. (which is why some grammarians aren't always sure whether the alif's original root is a ya or waw with words like thse). Shaddahs always existed even before they knew how to accurately write it, because shadda means a 'strenghtening' or 'emphasis' and was invented to describe what actually happens to the sound. The sound is doubled and pronounced that way because the speaker understands that there are 2 of that sound there. LIke in Shadda, when you say it you put emphasis on the dal because you know that there are two dals there. IF there were only two radicals there then that second dal would not be able to disattach itself to make the word shadeed. or shidaad. We can't liken it to 'it' because that would be like comparing apples with oranges. English is a totally different animal. The 't' in it can be doubled or transform into 'd'. But we should even be dealing with this because it is not an Arabic verb.
Classical Arabic and the script that it uses are two different things. The script came from Aramaic script, which was a very deficient script, just like its son the Arabic script. It didn't have symbols or ways to represent what was really being pronounced. So as the scripts progress people added new symbols to make the script more efficient. They also did there best to represent the orginas of the words sometimes as well, which is why you'll see 'salaat' in the Quran with a 'waw' in some scripts.(the people who chose a script tried tro show how some people said salawat and other salaat' and the the origin comes from a 'waw'. Hebrew script is just as bad. In early Arabic script there was no way to tell the difference (when reading) between raas and zays or jeems, haas or khaas. THere was obviously a difference in the spoken langauge but the scripts were crap ( and in my opinion they still are). They stayed that way for a long time because most people memorized written texts and they served only as a general guide. Arabic, Hebrew and Aramaic still continue in that same tradition, where the reader has to already know the Arabic words and guess from the context when he or she reads, in order to read correctly.
In modern day texts they still leave out shaddas and other diacriticals because reading relies on the readers knowledge of popular usages and context skills. So Junaah and Janaah are still spelled the same way. Kurraam and kiraam are spelled the same way, and sometimes the author will put a diacritical so that the reader won't confuse what he means with another word (with the same root and general spelling) that can also make sense in the context.
All in all. Just because in ancient texts (and even in modern ones) the shadda wasn't written doesn't mean that it didn't exist. It existed in the pronunciation of the word and the proof of there being no such thing as 2 letter roots is that the last letter splits into two whenever you want to change the word's form into forms that depend on 3 letter roots. Shadeed from shadda, hadeed from hadda, qissees from qassa, qisaws from qawssa, ishtaat from shatta etc.
Please let go of the idea that there are 2 letter root words (meaning that they are verbs) in Arabic, my dear brother El-Azeez. I hope I've made it clear that this is a mistaken idea.
Godbless,
AnwarAhmed, looking forward to see thsoe 5 letter or 6 letter roots. But again I wasn't the one that made those scoffing comments. Check again.
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Anwar,
thank you very much for this brief lesson of semitic languages. I already knew this and not any of what you just explained could further establish your claim that e.g. "hajj" is based on a three radical verb. In fact you actually explained yourself that the shaddah of hajj is nothing but a clarification of the pronounciation so that it's not confused with "haaj" (in ancient classical Arabic script, that is). Thus, "hajj" is originally written "haj/hag". Get it? Obviously you do...
Please let go of this id?e fix?e of yours. There's seriously NO language of the world that uses an equal amount of radicals for ALL verbs. Does that seriously make sense?
/S
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I don't think you are going to get what I"m saying. I honestly think you have a spirit of competition going on here. You also keep distorting what I"m saying. I don't think you fully read my post either.
The shadda does represent two letters. That is what I am saying. Otherwise hajja would not be able to split into all of its forms that have two jeems.
There's seriously NO language of the world that uses an equal amount of radicals for ALL verbs
Seconly I never said this. I said that Arabic bases its verbs off of 3 & 4 letter roots. And that goes for ALL of its verbes. But NONE of its verbs have roots based off of two letters unless you don't want to recognize that the emphasis on the last letter and the way it splits up represents TWO of the same letter.
I gave you a lesson Arabic script. It doesn't matter who hajj was originally written it only matters how it was pronounced and how it morphs into its different froms. Shadeed was originally writtten sadeed and nizaa' was originally written niraa'. The original Arabic script is deficient and no sound conclusion would be based on it.
Godbless,
ANwar -
Shadeed was originally writtten sadeed and nizaa' was originally written niraa'. The original Arabic script is deficient and no sound conclusion would be based on it.
...just like hajj was originally typed h(a)j. There's no way you can trace hajj back two three radicals.
J?' is another two-radicaled verb, btw.