After reviewing
The verse 172 ,3 below is speaking about Moses not Israel as being the one carried with Noah in the ship .
17-2/3
17-2 And We gave Moses the Scripture and made it a guidance for the Children of Israel that you not take other than Me as Disposer of affairs,
17-3 progeny of those We carried with Noah. Indeed, he was a grateful servant
Also it was wrong saying that there was no prophets from the progeny of Isreal .
To correct something wrong about the title of this topic Following the verse 1958 , Israel was among the prophets and so in his progeny there are prophets.
Chapter (19) srat maryam (Mary) verse , Ayah ( 5
Sahih International Those were the ones upon whom Allah bestowed favor from among the prophets of the descendants of Adam and of those We carried with Noah, and of the descendants of Abraham and Israel, and of those whom We guided and chose. When the verses of the Most Merciful were recited to them, they fell in prostration and weeping.
Pickthall These are they unto whom Allah showed favour from among the prophets, of the seed of Adam and of those whom We carried (in the ship) with Noah, and of the seed of Abraham and Israel, and from among those whom We guided and chose. When the revelations of the Beneficent were recited unto them, they fell down, adoring and weeping.
Yusuf Ali Those were some of the prophets on whom Allah did bestow His Grace,- of the posterity of Adam, and of those who We carried (in the Ark) with Noah, and of the posterity of Abraham and Israel of those whom We guided and chose. Whenever the Signs of (Allah) Most Gracious were rehearsed to them, they would fall down in prostrate adoration and in tears.
Shakir These are they on whom Allah bestowed favors, from among the prophets of the seed of Adam, and of those whom We carried with Nuh, and of the seed of Ibrahim and Israel, and of those whom We guided and chose; when the communications of the Beneficent Allah were recited to them, they fell down making obeisance and weeping.
Muhammad Sarwar These were the Prophets from the offspring of Adam, from those who embarked with Noah and from the offspring of Abraham and Israel. God guided them and chose them for His favor. Whenever they would hear the revelations of the Beneficent God they would bow down in prostration with tears.
Mohsin Khan Those were they unto whom Allah bestowed His Grace from among the Prophets, of the offspring of Adam, and of those whom We carried (in the ship) with Nuh (Noah), and of the offspring of Ibrahim (Abraham) and Israel and from among those whom We guided and chose. When the Verses of the Most Beneficent (Allah) were recited unto them, they fell down prostrating and weeping.
Arberry These are they whom God has blessed among the Prophets of the seed of Adam, and of those We bore with Noah, and of the seed of Abraham and Israel, and of those We guided and chose. When the signs of the All-merciful were recited to them, they fell down prostrate, weeping.
Peace
Salam ,
This is what i was thinking a while after sawing the Moon at daylight , does it look like a solid earthly (ardض surface? It does not . It's slightly diffrent from the substance of the sky .
This subject go deeper in understanding how the light light up ? How we perceive light ?
In my understanding from a research in the matter I come to
There is a substance In the earth atmospher who makes the Sun visible to us , the light from the Sun interact with that substance in the earth atmospher and lighted it up and produce the daylight , it's the daylight who makes the sun visible .
See for reference 91-03
The Moon could have a atmospher who allow sun substance to interact with it and produce that brightness at night "Nurr ".
Bearing in mind that in Arabic tongue there is difference between the name of what sun was made for and the name of what the moon was made for .
No lets examine something very important to verify that
In the Qur'aan it says that the sun was made to a Diaa'
And the moon to a Nurr , See for reference 10-05
The Diaa' is a state of the Nurr , if the Nurr is too strong it produce The Diaa' , these doesn't mean that the sun got light from the moon but only to show the basic meaning for the two term from a Arabic linguistic point of view .
A solid substance as the earth / Ard doesn't interact with light source as the Sun to produce a daylight the interaction is in the atmosphere around the earth , this is why at night around the Moon it look all dark no daylight ? Although the sun light is directing to that area where the Moon is .
Why we do not see the brightness of the light of the sun at night In the sky ?
In my opinion its Simply because there is no daylight atmosphere in the sky at night , the English traduction of the Nahar as daylight is not accurate ,the daylight is the / Dya'a , notice the etymology of Day and Dya'a , Nahar is more about a opining stream or a running stream of something , from it River in Arabic called Nahr as it is a runing Stream of water.
This mean that the moon has a substance that allow him to be lighted up at night , wich is far to be a solid massive dusty matter like Stone but probabley more fludic substance .
Do this expriment look very attentively at a sunny day at the atmospher just very close to your eyes and you Will see a very thiny brightness lighting up like very small explosions .
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My nearest english tranleteration
62-09 {O ye who believe! When the call is heard for the Salaah from the day of The Assembly (Al-jumu"ah ) haste unto the Dhikr of ALaah and leave Seals (Al-bay"a ع That is better for you if ye did but know.}
62-10 {And when the Salaah is done , then disperse in the land and seek of The bounty of ALaah ( Fadl ALaah ) , and remember Allah much, that ye may be successful.}
62-11 {But when they see some trading ( Tigarah ) or amusement they break away to it and leave thee standing. Say That which ALaah hath is better than amusement and than trading , and Allah is the Best of providers}
The verses above is mainly speaking about the call to Salaah from the day of assembly for trading , the concept of trading in a appointed day is very common in ancient civilization and still for today , they call then "the weekly market " in our place still for today every community or region have a appointed day for trading, every trader bring the goods and the store to be fixed in early morning , once the market ( souq ق is finished the trader takes his store with him.
So the point is that people when they went for trading in ordinary market they woke up early to fixe the store and place their goods also people come to that assembly for trading from other regions and villages so they woke up early .
Notice the verse say { from The day of Al-jum"ah/ assembly }
The word "Al-jum"ah" was mentioned with AL which is referring to a known day to them , the word Al-Salaah also with AL which mean its known to them , it's not about a new commande regarding a new version of Assalaah , the verse is speaking about the same Salaah , and it's time Miqaat to be rised up in is also already known along with its timing Mawqet .
The commande in that verse is about instructing them to not ignore the same known call for the same known Ssalaah in the same known time when they assemble in the appointed known day for trading
The word "Idha / When " in { - }
62-09 {O ye who believe! When the call is heard for the Salaah from the day of Al-jumu"ah , haste unto the Dhikr of ALaah and leave Seals (Al-bay"a ع That is better for you if ye did but know.}
In Arabic tongue "Idha / When " mentioned in 62-09 is always referring to something that happen most usually and inevitably will happen unless the word " If " , so this mean that the verse is talking about a very usual common Call for Sallah it happen very often .
The day of Al-Jumu"ah is not an exception from that point , the only exception in that day is the assembly for trading .
Note Dhikr of ALaah in 62-09 is refering to some of the Qur'aan attribut , see for reference 38-01
Peace Yamibato,
Completely wrong logic. Two different words in al-quran can refer to the same concept. For example "siraat" and "sabeel". Both mean way/path.
.
Salam Truthseeker,
The above statement is Completly Wrong. and one of the major wrong approach to study the Arabic tongue in the Quraan .
Some tips in the subject .
There is no sequence / Taraduf in The arabic tongue hence In The Quraan .
"AL-ssirat " is the main wide long road , like the highway
"AL-ssabyil " is any secondary small roads who leads to the highway .
In the Quraan "AL- ssiraat " with "AL " mean the knwon true one , never been mentioned as plural but always singular form 01-06 as there is only one true "AL- ssiraat "
But "AL-ssabyil " in the other hand was mentioned with plural form 29-69 as there are many . Some leads to the main road "AL- ssiraat " others does not .
To mention that one thing can have multiple attribute Sifaat/ every attribute is described by a new word "kalem" which we call name or names , these attributes could describe wither some of the action of that thing or if he got changes in his essence / reality due to some other circumstances .
To mention also that one action can be described with two different verbs / wording or more depending from which angle or part or essence the action is been described / seen , and that is due to the speakers attentions to what he want the audience to understand from that
See for reference 2-60 and 7-160 the two verses talk about one same action of Moses hit the stone but whats happened after was described with two different verbs in 2-60 and 7-160 , these does not mean that the verb in 2-60 is synonym or a sequence to the verb in 7-160 , but it's about what I mentioned earlier .
Peace, Alkitab.
I don't think it's a proper noun. The singular term "qariyah" (ة / plural "qura" (ى appears several times in the scripture, and simply denotes an urban settlement. So why should the dual form "qaryatayn" suddenly denote a name?
Salam "Pazuzu" ,
Do you remember once a three years ago you mentioned that people when debating meanings and understanding regarding verses they should look into Parsing ?
See your post n*23
http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9603850.20
Well this is very very true and important indeed , there was a huge corruption in that too but it doesn't mean that all the studies in that field is incorrect , and I come to find magnificent studies and illustration regarding many debated concept that all has their solution in knowing the Arabic tongue structure , like why this form or this preposition was used in this verse and not in the other even-though both talk about same event , why a same event is described with different form or wording in different places in the Qur'aan , why the Quraan use different preposition between actions or events , what is the purpose of thestructures or forms below and when and why they are used differently in the Qur'aan
...etc I am sure brother Mazhar can give more accurate English translation for the term above .
Back to Al-quaryatayin (ن and Al-Qaryatn (ن
The preposition ( from ) in the verse transliteration ("why this Qur'aan wasn't sent upon a great man from of Al-quaryatayin " ) , linguistically indicate ( س mean That the preposition ( from ) includ or cover or absorb in and all the Al-quaryatayin if we consider Al-quaryatayin as two Town then the preposition (from ) indicate that the object who is a one great man should be (included) in both Town wich is not possible because he is either in one Town or the other .
So to solve this from a Arabic linguistic point of view if the sentence was pointing To a dual form not to a proper name The sentence should be as so
"why this Qur'aan wasn't sent upon a great man from one of Al-quaryatayin " " "
Meaning a great man from one of the two town , as we see this sentence is different linguistically from the first one . The word (one of ) is referring to the slecetion or split and applying a distinguish (ن and direction to the preposition (from ن who cover and includ the whole of the two town .
There is another linguistic form to solve this so That the word Al-quaryatayin would mean two Town , That is if the sentence used the form of ( The Preference name ل , so it read like this
"why this Qur'aan wasn't sent upon the greatest man from of Al-quaryatayin " " "
In this form (the preference name ) play the same role of the word (one of ى in the second sentence , because by this form we can distinguish and make the selection as the sentence is pointing to the greatest man then there can only be one who is the greatest from the tow town .
Unless you wish to completely ignore the grammar rules (and that's understandable), I think if it was a proper noun, it would have appeared as Qaryatn (ن, not Qaryatayn (ن.
Yes true that the prefix (n ن is commonly used in names , as it indicate fullness and regeneration like Najrn , Quahtn , Adnan , Marjn , Furqn , Qur'n . And names linguistically in arabic are more powerfull then Verbes , also names indicate stability .
From a Parsing point of view The two form Qaryatn (ن And Qaryatayn (ن denote duality or dual form the difference is That
Qaryatayn (ن in the verse above is broken or genitive feminine noun by the preposition (from ن
Any word in dual form in Arabic would follow that rule , same as if the dual form is in a Accusative form
or if it is under a genitive case
or possessive case
In the other hand the other dual form with the prefix n at the end Al-Qaryatn ( ) is used when it is in the position of
A Dual form in Active participle
A Dual form as subject in nominal sentence
A Dual form as Predict nominal conditional sentence playing the role of result or answer
An ex from the Qur'aan for that
2282 {.....And bring to witness Shahidayn (two witnesses ) from among your men. And if there are not Rajulayn (two men ) then a man and 'mra'tayn (two women ) from those whom you accept as witnesses....}
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Notice Shahidayn (two witnesses ) is a dual form in genetive form because it is accusative , same as Rajulayn (two men ) it's in genitive form because it is conjoined to Shahidayn (two witnesses ) by the preposition ( then ) who is in ( then a ) , we know this by the rule that the conjoined name follow the same form of the conjoined to . But when it come to the word 'mra'tayn (two women ) wich is also in dual form suddenly it is written in the other dual form with the prefix n at the end having subjunctive mood or accusative case , so why is that ? Why the dual form changed in same sentence ? Because the word 'mra'tayn (two women ) is a predict conjoined to the word Rajul (a man) who is the first subject . So both are a predict nominal sentence set as a answer for the conditioned first sentence see here in shortcut the conditioned sentence with the condition preposition ( if ) and it response {...And if there are not Rajulayn (two men )...then a man and two women's 'mra'tayn...}
So because the dual form is in the position of Predict nominal sentence then the rule is that it has to be in the form of 'Imra'atn not Imra'atayn .
There another exemple from the Qur'n about the two dual form and their usage , see for exemple
He used the dual form with the prefix Rajuln in 523 but in 1676 and 2445 and 2815 he used the other form Rajulayn .
Another exemple is 'ithnn used in 5106 but in 6143 and 940 and 1651 he used 'ithnayn .
All these diffrent dual form usage follow the '3rab Structure mentioned above , but what I mentioned are not the only explanation and not the only justification , as there are levels of justification in that matter . But they must not contradict each other or get in confusion with other constructions .
From another level of perspective notably you can see it used in the Maq'ayiss Alugha dictionary , this level of understanding examine and go deep analysing the movements directions and the forms of the roots and names in Arabic tongue , from this perspective the difference between the two dual form and Al-Qaryatn ( ) and Al-Qaryatayn (ن is that the first one is more powerful due to the prefix (n ن at the end of the word . the duality in it is very full , when this form of duality is used it indicate this concepts , mainly highlighting To the speech receptors , audience , the importance of that thing or object who is in duality . The second dual form is having broke or crack it is more likely to be with less importance as being wither in accusative form , or genitive form , or possessive form , as we see all this forms are a secondary level not like the first form who is to be used in the form of the active form , or the subject or the predict of the the subject .
Ex from this perspective
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5546 {But for him who feareth the standing before his Lord there are two Janatn (Gardens) }
5547 {...}
5548 {...}
5549 {...}
5550 {...}
5551 {...}
5552 {...}
5553 {...}
5554 {Reclining upon couches lined with silk brocade, the fruit of both Al-Janatayn (the gardens ) near to hand}
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Notice in 5546 it says (Janatn ) then in 5554 it says (Al-Janatayn ) , both verse spoke about the same two gardens , but with two different dual form , notice that in 5546 the speech is about the two gardens itself , but in 5554 the speech is about the fruit of the two gardens . When the speech was about the gardens itself it used the dual form with the prefix (nن Janatn , and this is to show the importance , the fullness , the regeneration of the tow gardens , but in 5554 the speech is not about the two gardens but their fruits so he used the broken dual form Janatayn
Another ex
5550 {Wherein are aynn (two fountains ) flowing}
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The word "aynn who is in dual form mean two fountains or spring
9008 {Have We not made for him "aynayn (two eyes?)}
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The word "aynayn who is in dual form mean two eyes .
Notice how the "aynn who has the prefix n at the end is referring to tow fountains , wich is like a big eyes fully running with water unlike the aynayn who is referring to two eyes , They are two like two fountains as tears (water) come out from them but they are small in size and fullness . In the Qur'n when he refers to humain eyes in dual form he only use the borken form aynayan not the full dual form with prefix n at the end .
I give diffrent exemple and That is from the concept of analysing th? enlargement and vastness of th? meanings , but it dosn' mean That diffrent opposit or contradict meaning what is known , th? analysis is still inside lingustic aspect not interpretations or ghnostic , the two last branches are diffrent livel of understanding and studios .
To answer your question, there is indeed a place called Qaryatn, near Basra (Iraq). I found it in al-Bakri's Glossary. But I seriously doubt it's the place the Quran is talking about.
Probably not the only place called so .
It's the actual geography of these towns that I don't agree with.
I come to the same understanding especially what is done there is a huge corruption and twisting the words from it's meaning and their linked object or subject .
Regarding zaytoun (ن, to this day I have yet to find convincing evidence that the Quran is talking about the agricultural olive tree. If you check the context of Tuur Sina, in , it is very obviously describing a form of wild tree, which has been historically known to grow naturally in that place. It is not something that they cultivated. If the Quran is truly speaking about the olive tree here (which is again mentioned in relation to the Tuur in ), then it is the wild variety of such. And indeed, wild olives have grown in those regions of Arabia for thousands of years, and they are called locally . Their glue-like extract has been proven to have therapeutic properties.
To mention that the Duhn who is mentioned in the Qur'an as something grows From that tree is something that people eat .
In my opinon it is no other then the oil itself not the glue , as it's something people eat , not sure what is the purpose of the glue of
So I more likely thinking that the Duhn is oil , so it should be a tree that their fruit generate oil . I am not 100% of that but I will re-search about it . Why I said that ? Its because the arabic word for oil is Zayet so the word Duhn can not be a synonym of the word Zayt simply because there is no (Sequence ) in Arabic names or verbs or letters . But the Duhn can be a description for the word Zayt , giving description to one of it entities or naming it from another perception , the second name is not a explication of the first name but a description from other concepts , and that is known and used in Qur'an .
Another concept in Arabic is that one thing can called differently when it transform from something to something else .
Or when describing an event from different angle see 260 for exemple it says , same event and same action it's says in 7160
Another ex
The day of judgement is named by different names , but they are not synonyms but descriptions of that day ,
In fact the tree mentioned in relation to the Tur is very important we should the connection between al-duhn and al-Zayt and al-sibgh . I will Incha' ALaah come back to this .
Tahyah Tayibah .
For the research and for sharing this .
Do the brother come across a village called Al-Qaryatayen in the old arabic geographical and historical books , as you know from the Qur'aan the rejectors were debating by asking "why this Qur'aan wasn't sent upon a great man from the Al-Qaryatayen ?."
the old Tafassir explained the word literally by saying it is referring to two villages ( mecca and al-madinah ) , but in a opinion it is more likely that the word Al-Qaryatayen is about one place if not read literally , knowing we're it was will give another geographical place/ name about the area were the events took place .
Another question brother where in Assir and Today's Yemen in general someone can find field of olives ?
Proposition
a. Sharia is God's Law
b. God is All Powerful and in control of everything.
c. We must strive for the enforcement of Sharia's Law, even if it cost us our lives (suicidal)
By substituting (a) into (c) we get
d. We must strive for the enforcement of God's law, even if it cost us our lives (suicidal)
Which implies
e. If we don't strive for the enforcement of God's law, God's law will not be enforceable..
Which further implies
f. God is not All Powerful and in control of everything, because he need human help to enforce His law.
Thus raises question of
g. If Sharia is truly God's law, why we need to strive for it's enforcement????? Shouldn't God's law be automatically enforced?
The above is only but fallacies , Words play , twisting the meanings and more.
What he is refering to is physical "Law " so
Do not mix physical "Law" with Shari'ah ( social "law"
The "Shari'ah" as it is evident from the Qur'aan has been seted up and sent by Alaah and every community has free Will to establish it or not , the community choice to establish or not the Shari'ah Will In no way affect Alaah Being All powerfull simply because Alaah do not force anyone To establish it , as it is a test to them , if he force it's application there will be no longer a free choice .
In the contrary the physical law has been seted up and preserved by Alaah for all beings ( Taskhyir ) it does not need to be enforced by humains as it is already enforced controled and preserved .
THAYAMMUM what.? N? Rubing soil or dust or clean clay , this is la about "changing the meaning of the Words from it's contextes "
See this
http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9607038.0
But what I have pointed out is different; the masculine pronoun in the complex sentence will refer to masculine Milk, since that is there in accusative case as Tameez. Today we know the Milk has its own Batoon milk fat globules.
Salam ,
I see u'r point .
The milk is included in the (h) in ( butunihi ) but the masculin form at the end of ( butunihi ) does not Come form the milk but from the singularity of the whole .
Let me explain
The pronom (h) in ( butunihi ) is referring to AL-an"aam , from deep approch the bounded ( h ) is refereeing to the whole of something , like madrassah , the bounded ( h ) at the ended of the word deeply refer to the ensemble or the whole of that thing .
Madrassah school ,is it plural or singular ? is it one thing or a lot of things combined ? In a school there is walls , rooms , teachers , students ..etc , So there is plurality in there and the (h) at the end is pointing to the whole of that plurality combined , so it become singular as they form one unified undivided thing. I am referring by this that the (h) in ( butunihi ) is referring to the whole that is included in the word AL-an"aam ( their stomach , the milk , their bodies , their horn ..etc) , so the milk is automatically included.
The rule you are pointing to does exist in the Qur'aan , These are other tips about the concept of masculinizing of femminizing verbs Or nons
The word (al-shafa"aa ) is mostly used in Qur'aan and basic Arabic in feminine form , but here we can see that it's masculinezed in some cases , look to the following
2/48
(  
Notice the verb ( laa yuqbal ل , he is in masculin form , if it was feminized the verve would be ( Laa tuqbal ل
in the same verse when talking about the same word (al-shafa"aa ) he said
2/123
( )
( laa tanfa"uhaa ا ,notice the verb is in feminine form , if it was masculinezed it would say ( laa yanfa"uhaa ا
In another verses the verb pointing to (al-shafa"aa ) is feminized
36/23
( )
53/26
( {26}).
Notice the Verb ( Laa tughni ن , he is in feminine form , if he was in masculin , should say ( Laa yughni ن
So why the Verbs pointing to the same word (al-shafa"aa ) was masculinezed in 2/48 and femminzed in 2/123 , 36/23 , 53/26 ?
As I mentioned in late post , in basic Arabic when a word do not have real opposit sex it can wither femminzed or masculinezed as per the context of the sentence and the meaning , in our case the word (al-shafa"aa ) is not real feminine word ( ي because does not have real opposite sex , so in this case there is no grammatical problem.
But why it was masculinezed in 2/48
Because the meaning was directing the audience to the one who will intercede (Al-shafi" ع not the ( intersection ) itself , and the intercedor is , so the Verbe was masculinezed .
Salamun alaika,
Thanks for relevant input about grammar delicacies.
But here the noun is the same one towards which you are relating both the pronouns; i.e. ; thus there is not the issue of plural of paucity and plural of abundance involved here.
Wa''alyika Salaam ,
This is known as ( mentioning the whole or the collective name but the meaning only pointing to some specific features ) the verse is saying that we get milk from AL-an"aam , and we know that can't have milk from all of them but only from females , so simply in this verse it doesn't specify that because it's evident that people do not have milk from the male.
An example for that rule in this same verse
Read the continuation of the verse in question 23/21
it says ( And upon them and on ships you are carried ) , are we Carrierd upon all the AL-an"aam ( the 8 pairs ) or only some of them , Surely poeple where Carrierd upon some of them only , cause poeple are not carried upon sheep or goats , so the meaning is pointing to some specific types of them while is still Using the whole commune name for all of them AL-an"aam
Moreover the verb can't be taken to have any relevance with other benefits people draw from mammals.
It is simply pointing to females as per what I mentioned above .
Another rule in arabic is that when there is a none that do not have real opposite gender it is acceptable to be feminized or msculinezed as per the whole context and other rules in combination .
Names who do not have real opposite gender in truth are name like the sun , the sky , the moon , the peace , the affection etc , hence the word AL-an"aam do not have real opposite gender , so it can be masculinezed or feminized as per the other rules , and these rules goes with physical reality like quantity , direction , and all according to the audience priorities and importance And the objective of the whole speech .
All translators religiously following the traditional exegeses relate the masculine singular pronoun and feminine pronoun to feminine plural noun occuring in exactly identical first sentences in both Ayahs.
I could not find any rule in Arabic grammar to agree with all of them. Can you reconcile?
Salam Mazhar ,
The key rule to resolve this lies In the quantity of the word In question is it "many " or only a "few " . In arabic There is gross quantity ( ) and small quantity ( ة and for each There is a rule when it comes to describe it with Feminine pronom or with masculin
The rule In Quraan and in basic arabic is That
When the word describe something That is " many " ( ) or a "lot" the end pronom used is in feminine form , same as In the second verse you quoted. ( )
And when the word describe something That is "few " or " little" th? end pronom is used In masculin form , same as In the first verse you quoted ( ه
Examples of that rules from the Qur'aan
1- first example when the the word describe something that is " many " ( ) so the feminine pronom is used
verse 3/42
(kaalt AL Malaa'yika) , kaalt is in the femminie form because the "AL Malaa'yika" are too many , eventhough the "AL Malaa'yika" are not female.
Another example
verse 14/10
(kaalt Rusuluhum) , eventhough the " AL Rusul " ( messemgers ) are not female kaalt is In the femminine form because "AL Rusul" ( the messemgers are too many , .
There are other exemple of that rule That includes names also who ends up with ( taa' t'nyit) or the plurals under the pattern fa"ul and af"ul , like shuhur and "ashhur ", both are plurals but "shuhur " are more in counting. And there are many other rules like that. And those rules are not arbitrary but follow the "real " , " physical "" natural " "phenomena "
1- second example when the the word describe something that is " few " or " little" ( ) so the masculin pronom is used
Verse 12/30
( Kaala Niswah) , eventhough the " Niswah " (womens ) are female the verbe "Kaala " is in masculin form because the " Niswah" (Womens) who was with Yusuf (S) where only a few womens.
So how in the verse you quoted , those rules fit
Notice the first verse 23/21
(2) - 23 - 21
( ا is in feminin form because it talks about many things that we can get from AL An"aam ( The 8 pairs animal) notably the verse is listing ( milk , many benefits , and we eat from them ) , so do we get milk from the male of these animals or only from the females , surely from the females only , so the verse is including in that verse males and females of these 8 pair animals because it does talk about all the benefits from both gender , by so they are many , and this is why the verse use the feminine form of the pronom at the end of the word in question.
In the second verse 16/66 it talk only about Milk
So it only talk about the female of the 8 pairs from these animals so they are few compared to the other verse which includ both gender , so this is why in the second verse he used the masculin form at the end of the word in question.
Allah (Arabic) = Alla (Maltese) = God (English) = Gud (Swedish) = Gott (German) = Deus (Portuguese) = Dios (Spanish) = Dieu (French) = etc........
Regards,
Yuliana
Salam ,
The Germanic English word God is non but the Arabic word Jad
72 - 1
72 - 2
72 - 3
721 (Say It is revealed unto me that a company of the Jinn gave ear, and they said Lo! we have heard a marvelous Qur'an,)
722( Which guides unto righteousness, so we believe in it and we ascribe no partner unto our Lord.)
723(And that He - exalted be the majesty ( Jad) of our Lord! - hath taken neither wife nor son,)
From Makayiss al-ougha dictionary
http//library.islamweb.net/newlibrary/display_book.php?bk_no=124&ID=106&idfrom=598&idto=618&bookid=124&startno=2
( ) ع .
Google Translation
(Jad) the J and the d are three asset and they refer to the first greatnesss , the second luck and wealth , and the third cutting.
From Lissan al-3arab Dictionary
http//library.islamweb.net/newlibrary/display_book.php?idfrom=1207&idto=1207&bk_no=122&ID=1208
Google Translation
And that exalted the Jad of our Lord ; said His Jad is referring to his greatness, and was told his riches, Mujahid said Jad of our Lord is referring to his majesty , and said to each other the greatness of our Lord
The Germanic tribe notably English same as some of the A3rab tribes they pronounce J as G , so Jad become Gad then later the English pronounced it as God .
Same as the Arabic word
= Jayd who mean Good , the J in Jayd been pronounced by the Germanic tribes as Gayd and later pronounced by English tribes as Good
The grand fathers in Arabic is called Jad pronounced by many tribes as Ged
The term The God etymologically is from the arabic term Dhu al-Jad mean the one who possess greatness and wealth
The = dhu , in English the equivalent of the letter/sound dh is Th, which is a D with a point at the top becoming Dh , the pronunciation connection of Th in English as dh in Arabic is similar to the English pronunciation of the word Think , etymologically from the Arabic word dhan / mean to think or have a thoughts . the sound letter Dh is a D with a dot at the top becoming Dh .
The engligh Th is sometimes refering to dh same as in the english term The / dhu
The english Th is sometimes refering to Dh same as in the english term To Think / Dhan
The english Th is sometimes refering to th same as in the english term three / thalathah
So The God is
The = dhu ( the one who posses ) dhu al-3arch the possessor of the throne , dhu qwuah = the possessor of power
God = Jad ( greatness , wealth and luck )
You will found will wikipeding the term God that is referring to Goths , The eastern Germanic tribes are known as Goths
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goths
The G in Goths is the Arabic Q , Goth is the German pronunciation of the Arabic word QeT witch is widely used to mean cats , the root QT in Arabic refer to cut , this is why the domestic animals who has sharp teeth and sharp claws to use for cutting was called QeT .
http//imageshack.us/a/img43/268/44gk.jpg
Gothic Claws
Google anything like
Goths claws
Gothic makeup (mostly like cat eyes )
Gothic dress
Goths and kitten
and you will see the connections within cats and Goths and Gothic
I just don't find sufficient evidence to say that a homosexual can't be a muslim. It isn't explicitly stated, so why take chances and forbid what is not forbidden? It is an individual and private matter, and does not require interference.
~Abdul-Hadi
Salam Abdul-hadi ,
And you will not find too evidence to say that a homosexual can be a Muslim , It isn't explicitly stated , so why take chances and allow what is not allowed ?
Therefor evidence to say that homosexual is to be avoided by straight Muslim is explicitly stated
ALLAH knows best.
The below is the best knowledge from Allaah regarding the matter
Salam
Clear evidence, dispute this.
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Premise 1
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The Qur'an says men must guard their "private parts" except from their spouses/wives
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Premise 2
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Gays are men and have "private parts"
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Therefore (rule)
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Gays must guard their "private parts" except from their spouses/wives
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Show me an ayat that they gays are exempted from the rule relating to "private parts"?
Where is the ayat that Allah sets them free from this obligation, which others are subject?
Peace
It is an individual and private matter, and does not require interference.
Yes they have total freedom to do whatever they want with their Private part .
The evident teaching
Total Freedom = Do whatever you want/wish , with your yourself and your private part .
But Remember !
Total Truth = There are things that are right to do and things that are wrong to do
,
Peace Alkitab,
773 And to Thamud, We sent their brother Saleh, he said ?My people, serve God, you have no god besides Him; clarity has come to you from your Lord, this is the camel of God, in her you have a sign, so leave her to eat in God?s earth, and do not harm her, else the painful retribution will take you.?
Is this sign something forced or something to be obeyed by free will?
Salam Timur ,
The she-Camel itself is a sign to the people of Thamud because the she-camel was been sent to them.
The sign was sent to them
Indeed, We are sending the she-camel as trial for them, so watch them and be patient.
The sign was sent to them to confirm the messenger Salah's preaching , that he is carrying a message from allaah.
And nothing has prevented Us from sending signs except that the former peoples denied them. And We gave Thamud the she-camel as a visible sign, but they wronged her. And We send not the signs except as a warning.
And to the Thamud their brother salih. He said, "O my people, serve Allah ; you have no ilah other than Him. There has come to you clear evidence from your Lord. This is the she-camel of Allah to you as a sign. So leave her to eat within Allah 's land and do not touch her with harm, lest there seize you a painful punishment.
The sign was a trial , and they were asked to abey allah's command regarding that sign , which is
And to the Thamud their brother salih. He said, "O my people, worship Allah ; you have no deity other than Him. There has come to you clear evidence from your Lord. This is the she-camel of Allah to you as a sign. So leave her to eat within Allah 's land and do not touch her with harm, lest there seize you a painful punishment.
and
He said, "This is a she-camel. For her is a drink, and for you is a drink, on a known day.
And do not touch her with harm, lest you be seized by the punishment of a terrible day."
As for Zakaryiaah the sign ( becoming speechless ) was for him to have confident about the fact that he is going to have child. Don't forget that he asked about a sign , why ? because he want to be confident , and this doesn't mean he wasn't believing
Salam member Noshirk ,
there is probably a misunderstanding of what i said.
Apologies but what was the misunderstanding ?
You said
there is absolutely no other way that the sign to zachariah is the same sign in the two verses. Zachariah was already making saoum from speaking to human during the daytime.
What was the misunderstanding according to what I said below in response to what you have said above
Salam Noshirk ,
Zacharyiaa wasn't making a volunteer Syiam ( fast ) , if it was volunteer there will be no sign in it for Zacharyiaa .
In the Three days mentioned in 341 & 1910 Zacharyiaa was not able to speak , he didn't speak to people because he couldn't , and that was the sign from Allaah that he is going to have a boy even if he is old and his wife is barren , he wanted a sign so to feel more confident about the fact .
19 - 8
19 - 9
19 - 10
198 (He said , "My Lord, how will I have a boy when my wife has been barren and I have reached extreme old age?"
199 ( Said, "Thus ; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, for I created you before, while you were nothing.' "
1910 ( He said, "My Lord, make for me a sign." He said, "Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three nights, sound."
So the sign was that he couldn't speak to people for three nights but only by gesture
341(He said, "My Lord, make for me a sign." He Said, "Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three days except by gesture. And remember your Lord much and exalt in the evening and the morning."
If it was a volunteer Syiaam ( fast) there will be no sign in it for
the sign of allah (forced saoum) is from maghrib to machriq (19-10)
the volunter saoum is from machriq to maghrib.
adding the two, wa have three complete days as in 3-41
if you reject this understanding you will have probably to admit that Allah, in Quran, by comparing 19-10 and 3-41, don't know if he made a sign for three night or three days.
Peace
Yes i reject this understanding and i do not admit what you linked throughly .
The sign from allah for Zakaryiaa is that he become speechless out of his control day and night during three days complete including the nights .
Saoum
abstinence ok but abstince from what ?
1926 ?So eat and drink and be content. If you see any human being, then say ?I have vowed an abstinence (saum) for the Almighty, so I will not talk today to any of mankind.??
and compare these
341 He said ?My Lord, make for me a sign.? He said ?Your sign is not to speak to the people for three days except by symbol, and remember your Lord greatly, and glorify at dusk and dawn.?
1910 He said ?My Lord, make for me a sign.? He said ?Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three nights consecutively.?
there is absolutely no other way that the sign to zachariah is the same sign in the two verses. Zachariah was already making saoum from speaking to human during the daytime.
Salam Noshirk ,
Zacharyiaa wasn't making a volunteer Syiam ( fast ) , if it was volunteer there will be no sign in it for Zacharyiaa .
In the Three days mentioned in 341 & 1910 Zacharyiaa was not able to speak , he didn't speak to people because he couldn't , and that was the sign from Allaah that he is going to have a boy even if he is old and his wife is barren , he wanted a sign so to feel more confident about the fact .
19 - 8
19 - 9
19 - 10
198 (He said , "My Lord, how will I have a boy when my wife has been barren and I have reached extreme old age?"
199 ( Said, "Thus ; your Lord says, 'It is easy for Me, for I created you before, while you were nothing.' "
1910 ( He said, "My Lord, make for me a sign." He said, "Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three nights, sound."
So the sign was that he couldn't speak to people for three nights but only by gesture
341(He said, "My Lord, make for me a sign." He Said, "Your sign is that you will not speak to the people for three days except by gesture. And remember your Lord much and exalt in the evening and the morning."
If it was a volunteer Syiaam ( fast) there will be no sign in it for
I wanted to ask if a person can be gay and Muslim?
Salam ,
***The act of the people of lut was considered as doing al-fahishah
And Lot when he said to his people, "Do you commit al-fahishah as no one has preceded you with from among the worlds ?
***How The act of al-fahishah is considered in al-qur'an
1690 = allah strictly forbid and ask muslims to avoid al-fahsha / al-fahishah
728 = allah strictly constructed Muhammad his messenger to tell people that allaah do not order al-fahsha / al-fahishah , because there are some poeple who said and they still said that till this days that allaah ask , order , tolerate poeple to do al-fahsha / al-fahishah
2945 = the salah strictly forbid al-fahsha / al-fahishah
2268 = satan / al-shaytan ask strictly to act and to do al-fahsha / al-fahishah
2421 = If someone follow the the foot steep of satan / al-shaytan then he will realize and discover that satan / al-shaytan ask , order , tolerate , instruct his people to act and do the al-fahsha / al-fahishah .
2419 = the ones who like that al-fahsha / al-fahishah spread among the believers will be hardly punished in this life and the hereafter
***The people who commit that act are described in the quran as people who act ignorantly
2755(What! do you indeed approach men with desire rather than women? Nay, you are a people who act ignorantly.)
***They act Ignorantly , al-jaahilyin , you can find out more here about who are the people who act ignortley
2563 = the opposite of the servant of allaah are the people who act ignortley
3664 = the people who serve others then allaah are the people who act ignortley
7138 = the people who prostrate/worship to the stone status are people acting ignortley
1129 and 4623 = the people who rejected the messenger Hud are people acting ignortley
2 67 = Moses the messenger seek refuge by allaah to not be among the people who act ignortley
635 = allah instructing Muhammad the messenger of allaah to not be like the people who act ignortley
1146 = allah instructing Nuh the messenger of allaah to not be like the people who act ignortley
1233 = Yusuf the messenger of allaah asking allaah to turn away their snare from him to not act like the people who act ignortley
2855 = the people who argue with lies about everything are the people who act ignortley
***The people who commit that act are also described in the quran as people who act Extravagantly
781(Indeed, you approach men with desire, instead of women. Rather, you are a people who act Extravagantly."
***They act Extravagantly , al-Musrifyin , you can find out more here about who are the people who act Extravagantly
6141 = allaah do not love the people who act extravagantly
731 = allaah do not love the people who act extravagantly
4043 = the people who act extravagantly are the people who will go to the fire
1083 and 4431 = the act of Faro/Fir3awn is described as a act of extravagant , you know the destination of Faro
219 = All the people who rejected the messengers and transgressed was acting extravagantly and was destroyed indeed
26151 = the people who act extravagantly shouldn't be listened to and he should be ignored
Conclusion
***Can you choose between this two cases Do you want to be among case n?1 or Case N?2
Case N?1
--They do not approach al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--al-salah do not tolerate al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--allaah forbid do not order the act of al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--allaah instruct his messengers to not be among the people who act ignorantly
--allaah do not love the people who act extravagantly
Case N?2
--They do al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--Satan / al-shaytaan tolerate and he do order the act of al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--If someone follow the foot steep of Satan / al-shaytaan he will see that he order , ask , tolerate al-fahsha / al-fahishah
--The ones who like that al-fahsha / al-fahishah spread among the believers will be hardly punished in this life and the hereafter
--The people who do the al-fahsha / al-fahishah are people who act ignorantly
--The people who do the al-fahsha / al-fahishah are people who act extravagantly
THETA ? Considered to the ?psychic? programming. Bloodliners (those coming from multi-generational Satanic families) were determined to exhibit a greater propensity for having telepathic abilities than did non-bloodliners.
Salam ,
Yes Ibliss has a progeny
1850(And when We said to the malaayika, "Prostrate to Adam," and they prostrated, except for Iblisse. He was of the jinn and departed from the command of his Lord. Then will you take him and his progeny as allies other than Me while they are enemies to you? Wretched it is for the wrongdoers as an exchange.)
And they are living in the earth
236(But Satan caused them to slip out of it and removed them from that in which they had been. And We said, "Go down all of you, as enemies to one another, and you will have upon the earth a place of settlement and provision for a time."
20123( said, "Descend from Paradise - all , being enemies to one another. And if there should come to you guidance from Me - then whoever follows My guidance will neither go astray nor suffer .)
And he has army
2695(And the soldiers of Iblees, all together.)
He has a considerable authority and control and that is through the concept of al-shayitan / satan
1699(Indeed, there is for him no authority over those who have believed and rely upon their Lord.)
16100(His authority is only over those who take him as an ally and those who through him associate others with Allah.)
He can have absolute control in his ally
1819(Satan has overcome them and made them forget the remembrance of Allah. Those are the party of Satan. Unquestionably, the party of Satan - they will be the losers.)
He has a %
4117(They call upon instead of Him none but female , and they call upon none but a rebellious Satan.)
4118(Whom Allah has cursed. For he had said, "I will surely take from among Your servants a specific portion.)
Salaam,
He seems to be banned a lot.
God bless you
Salam Man of Faith ,
He was banned for one week , and then he was banned for one months , if you look at the forum rules you will see the future scenario , he will be banned permanently as there is no other limited ban .
I am just wondering
When he will be banned permanently , is that mean he will never enter paradise ?