So you are not denying you are Leoxyz and his 6 reincarnations?

whome are you talking about??
Why are you evading the question of your PEARL of knowledge about "Nisaa" ??
Would you please let me know the source of your knowledge ??

The order is for both. What makes you think that the address is to men only?

Leoxyz, (I am addressing you with your first personality's name), instead of wasting time reincarnating again and again, it would be better if you try to learn something, if you even care to learn

Learning from whome ?? Quranist scholars like following "classical knowledge example???

Salaam POF

"Rijaal" does not primarily mean "men". It means those who seek; on foot. It could be "men" or "women". Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' " the delayed; remainder, left behind. We find both meanings in the quraan.

This is "Knowledge" of Arabic speaking person who is holding Lisaan ul Arab also.

I'm sorry but I fail to see how you arrived at this conclusion from the posts above. What Br. huruf explained was that polygamy can only be for the sake of orphans and women without means. I hope that none of your posts are due to any personal animosity but due to genuine curiosity to learn the truth.

Look at his middle paragraph

We can go on and imagine a situation where there are many men destitute with orphans and women are in a much smaller number and in a much better situation to afford a burdening themselves with more husbands and orphans. That way we will satisfy the theoretical principle of equality of problems between the sexes, but I don't remember that there has ever bee such situation, and all one could do is just dream that such a situation will sometime arise, where not only men and their orphans are in difficulties, but that there are in fact many more men than women and that many of those men are in fact in greater difficulties that all women. But if such situation arises, obviously in equity a solution that is as satisfactory as in the case of this aya could be applied.

In principle he agrees that many husband for one woman.

I just want to ask that is the meaning of this verse,(I didnt find this verse number),I am arguing with sunniis in one forum.Can somebody explane,please

Love for what ?

I think we are confusing possibility with right. The aya where that possibility is given refers to orphans and women without means and poligamy is contemplated only in that context. It is not that the male is given a right, but it is made possible for the society to have orhphans and destitute or un protected women to be provided for. It is rather the right of those orphans and women that is protected, not the right of any male to have x wives. If later fiqh has made it a right for men, then they were already not following the qur'an.

As to why women do not have a right to have more husbands, it is obvious that if there is shortage of men and you want women to have more than one husband, the shortage of men will be greater and more men will find themselves having to make use of their "right" to have still more women.

We can go on and imagine a situation where there are many men destitute with orphans and women are in a much smaller number and in a much better situation to afford a burdening themselves with more husbands and orphans. That way we will satisfy the theoretical principle of equality of problems between the sexes, but I don't remember that there has ever bee such situation, and all one could do is just dream that such a situation will sometime arise, where not only men and their orphans are in difficulties, but that there are in fact many more men than women and that many of those men are in fact in greater difficulties that all women. But if such situation arises, obviously in equity a solution that is as satisfactory as in the case of this aya could be applied.

To make it short men and women have equal right to be protected by society. The marriage for the sake of taking care of orphans and unprotected women is a possibility afforded to make effective that protection.

Salaam

So according to Quranist explanation ,if there are 10 men and one woman on an island.All ten can marry one woman.
bravo bravo

Peace

Yes, I believe the discrimination exists between the sexes in this instance. I believe a society based on quranic principles embodies the male having to follow specific duties in which he has a right to more than one wife so long as he can meet his duties.

Joe

You want to say that Quran advocates 'sex discrimination"??

Peace,

Although 2432 is directed to both believing men and women (... marry off those among you that are single, and the good from among your male and female servants) but, in any case, the following verse does instruct the believing men and women not to marry non-believing counterparts

2221 - "And do not marry the females who set up partners until they believe. For a believing servant is better than one who sets up partners even if she attracts you. And do not marry the males who set up partners until they believe. For a believing servant is better than one who sets up partners even if he attracts you. Those invite to the Fire, while God is inviting to Paradise and forgiveness by His leave. He clarifies His revelations for the people that they may remember."

As for believing men allowed upto 4 women and females allowed only one husband, I am not too proficient on that topic, but I am sure that you will find some answers in the following thread

http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=13534.0

I am sorry that I could not be of more help to you in this regard. Hope that you find the answers you are looking for in that thread.

Peace

Now here comes the definition of "Believers"
1Those who believe only in oneness of Allah or
2Those who belive in oneness of Allah + Prophethood of Muhammad PBUH.
Who are these ?
Secondly never forget that according to Quranists traditionalists by adopting Sunna of Prophet Muhammad PBUH are comitting "shirk".

Good point.I appreciate.
Since this order is for believer males.
It means muslims females can marry with as many non-muslim husbands as she likes.
Or you want to say that males are
-allowed upto four wives in some situation
-females are allowed only one husband.
Then what about gender equality ?

I think that would be 423, 424 & 2432...

Please do not quote them in numbers ,put the verses and show where do they restrict ?
These are verses

423

424
2432
Please hightlight and copy paste them back which indicatest that females cannot have multiple husbands.
Thanks in advance

Assuming that we are talking about believing men and women, I thought that married women are off limits to men... so if a believing woman is married, what believing man would marry her in her married state?

Is there any Quranic restriction/prohibition that a married woman/man cannot marry ??

Is it a good thing to have multiple wives?

Ask this question from the Quran not me.
Since there is no prohibition for females to have multiple husbands ,so she can have as many as she likes.
A divine certificate
Wow !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

So, I don't like your attitude at all, we are openminded here and if you cannot take it, take your pick and pack and leave.

Myabe it's hebrew, but that wasn't the most important thing for me to know, but instead it was the feeling I got when I heard about this and I could put another piece of the puzzle.

Maria

Open -mindedness does not mean that you start quoting un-authenticated material.

I did not say it is not the plural of "imra'atun". I said it is also the plural of another word, under which you search for the "plural" of imra'atun.

This is very strange my sister.You say one thing and deny right away.This is what Progod is crying for.
Look at your words

Salaam POF

"Rijaal" does not primarily mean "men". It means those who seek; on foot. It could be "men" or "women". Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' " the delayed; remainder, left behind. We find both meanings in the quraan.

You categorically said that Nisaa is not plural of "imraatun" and now you are denying it.

Salaam ehawk 35

Yes, whenever it is in the meaning of "sex" of human beings. If not, it is not men. I did not see it as meaning "sex", because that will create many contradictions. There is no harm in choosing the more reasonable meaning if it exists.

As for "nisaa'" how did you search it? Under "imra'a" or under "nas' "? Wasn't there any meaning for this or a plural? Again, as long as another word exists and fits the meaning better, no harm in choosing it.

Maybe it would be better for the discussion if you discuss my choice of a meaning over another, since both meanings exist in the qur'aan.

It means now one has to tell you how to consult an arabic dictionary.What is your source which says that "Nisaa " is "NOT plural " of "imraatun"??

Dear Samia
It is very strange you are talking about the language of the quran when your knowledge about arabic is reflected in one of your post

Salaam POF

"Rijaal" does not primarily mean "men". It means those who seek; on foot. It could be "men" or "women". Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' " the delayed; remainder, left behind. We find both meanings in the quraan.

And there is post in reponse to it

Whenever "Rajulun" is in the meaning of "sex" of human beings it is always "man" never "woman"
In fact 'rijaal' (when it is plural of "rajulun= man&quot does mean "men" primarily

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You are confusing this "rijaal" when it becomes plural of "raajilun" which means "pedestrian" then no doubt it is used for "men" or woman" commonly.But then it does not mean "woman" but " pedestrian"
This is the meaning of "pedestrian" which is given in your quoted verse
2227
(2227) and make a proclamation to the people to come to you for Hajj from far and near, on foot and on lean *46 camels

022.027
YUSUFALI "And proclaim the Pilgrimage among men they will come to thee on foot and (mounted) on every kind of camel, lean on account of journeys through deep and distant mountain highways;
PICKTHAL And proclaim unto mankind the pilgrimage. They will come unto thee on foot and on every lean camel; they will come from every deep ravine,
SHAKIR And proclaim among men the Pilgrimage they will come to you on foot and on every lean camel, coming from every remote path,

This word "rijaalan" in this verse is not in the meaning of" sex" rather in the meaning of "state" of their coming i.e on foot.

You also said

Quote

Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' "

I do not know your source of information;
"Nisaa" is the plural of "imra3atun"

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  Your whole concept is revolving aroung the verse
  4127

No doubt the question is about "Nisaa" and its answer is expanded.
The reason is "Kuffar" used not give inheritance to women,orphans and Younger ones.It is the reason answer is expanded collectively because of similar treatment carried out in case of inheritance by Kuffaar.
It does not mean at all the word "nisaa" itself contain all those meanings.
Because in that all other verses which contain this word will be compromised in case of meaning.

"

Peace,

I'm not sure which language it is but it must be a language they spoke during the pharaoes in Egypt.

The legends said it was how they created the pyramids with the help of merkaba and "the law of attraction" I suppose so. What you wish for you can get theory.

Maria

Good
You do not know what the language is ,so do not know the meanings but 'quoting it '.Classical quranist mind set.

Hi Progod
You are right."maa" is used with past and present tenses in classical arabic both aspects (spoken and written).

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Hi
Does Quran prohibit females from having multiple husbands in any situation ? As allowed men to have upto four wives in a particular situation.

If there is no prohibition ,it means a woman can marry multiple husbands .If there is prohibition ,then is this sex - discrimination ?