In a recent online discussion, I protested that Islam does not allow sex-slave. However, the following was replied to me. "Surah Al-Muminun (236) and Surah Al-Maarij (7030) both, in identical wording, draw a distinction between spouses and "those whom one's right hands possess" (female slaves), saying " " (literally, "their spouses or what their right hands possess&quot, while clarifying that sexual intercourse with either is permissible. The purchase of female slaves for sex was lawful from the perspective of Islamic law, and this was the most common motive for the purchase of slaves throughout Islamic history."

I tried to study the tafsir of the verses but things don't look good to me. Can anyone give me a proper explanation?