A topic for those who study Classical Arabic
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Thank you sister Samia pointing out those typos, you are right I could not find Wow(with hamza on top) on my windows arabic keyboard. but I can definitely fixed them with other arabic editor I am developing. Inshallah I will fix those errors and update them.
Try the key "c".
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Peace,
Great to see this thread being nourished by learned members! ;D
I've done some exercises in Arabic, and I'd appreciate some feedback.
Feel free to butcher me! peace
http//www.reflekterselv.com/smf/index.php?action=dlattach;topic=1443.0;attach=542
Nadeem
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I found following book for Arabic grammar a valuable resource.
Arabic for English Speaking students
by Muhammad Addul-Rauf PHDThis book provides "get to the point" Arabic grammar details with good examples.
http//www.amazon.com/English-Speaking-Students-Muhammad-Abdul-Rauf/dp/1881963004/ref=sr_11_1/002-5761012-1813662?ie=UTF8&qid=1179091195&sr=11-1
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Salaam Nadeem
Well done!
Some corrections
P 1
11. you (2 m &f)P 3
The woman went
She wentP 4 not (diptote)
8. Translation The wife of Noah and the wife of Lot were for two pious servants among God's servants (pious is dual and is indefinite because it's an adjective of an indefinite noun which is two servants).P 5
Same as P 3.P 6 Either the English sentence be "The pious women" or the Arabic one be " ". If it is in the plural, then not .
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Salaam sis Samia,
Just a question
What is the difference between kill 249, 284 and 4025. In 249,284 it is mentioned that Pharaoh used to kill males of Israelites (I think it refer to when Moses was born or before he became prophet ) and in 4025 it mentions when Moses went to Pharaoh with truth the Pharaoh's people said Kill (Qatala is used here) those males who believe in Moses. I am just curious why the two different words are used for the same act i mean to kill. Is there any difference in the two words.
Thanks, Hamsa
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Salaam sis Samia,
Just a question
What is the difference between kill 249, 284 and 4025. In 249,284 it is mentioned that Pharaoh used to kill males of Israelites (I think it refer to when Moses was born or before he became prophet ) and in 4025 it mentions when Moses went to Pharaoh with truth the Pharaoh's people said Kill (Qatala is used here) those males who believe in Moses. I am just curious why the two different words are used for the same act i mean to kill. Is there any difference in the two words.
Thanks, Hamsa
Salaam Hamsa
Sorry for the belated reply!
means to slaughter, specifically...but means to kill by any other means, generally.
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Peace,
Thanks Samia!
I've written a little dialog in Arabic. Nothing much, but something still... -)
Here it goes
. .
In my head, this translates to
They said "You rejected the signs of god".
Then he said "I'm but a believer in the deen of god".
Then they said "We reject your words, and you did not believe in god".
Then he said " That is not true, and my provider is one. You testify, and I testify, but he is the witness and better than us".How did I do?
Nadeem
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Salaam Nadeem
The important thing is I understood it...hmmm until the last line. I will tell you why after I correct it
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Unlike the English verb "to reject", the Arabic verb "kafara" takes a preposition "bi"
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When the "bi" prefixes the definite article "", do not get rid of the "alif". I know it won't be pronounced, but it should not go away either.
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A pronoun following a preposition or a verb (i.e in the genetive or the accusative state) will be suffixed to them and connected to them (i the preceding letter permits).
\ .
I read as , which means to beg (like in beggar). That's why at first I did not understand.
That's a good trial. Your errors are expected.
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Peace,
In my book it says translate "This child wrote his name in this book. Is he your child?".
My take on it
? .
But the key says
? .
Any one feel like they know what's going on? I certainly don't.
Nadeem
Both sentences are missing each a component
or
Yours is missing the definite article in (د, and the other is missing ( ).
Also, there shouldn't be a space between the alif and "huwa" ( ) not ( ). -
Thanks sis for both replies. Why must walad have a definite article?
Since Arabic does not use the verb (to be0 in the present, the language makes use of the definite article to differentiate between the relation between to consecutive nouns
This is a boy
This boyThe boy is inteligent
The inteligent boysister of the (paternal) uncle
Uncle (paternal) of the sister -
If there was a preposition like fee at the beginning, would it be al-waladu or al-waladi? Does the pronoun interfere?
As " with this boy "?
Yes, the preposition works across the demonstartive pronoun ma3a haathal waladi. The pronoun does not shield the noun from the preposition.
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Shukran!
"Qad j?'a rusulun minkum da'awn? 'il? ll?hi"
The book says that this means "There came from among you apostles who summoned us to God."
But I don't understand why "da'awn?" stands for "summoned us". Doesn't "da'awn?" mean "we summoned"? Does it mean both?
Nadeem