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  1. Home
  2. Critical Examination of Islam
  3. What is the nature of God?
  4. where is Allah?

where is Allah?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved What is the nature of God?
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  • S Offline
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    SatanHatesMe
    wrote on last edited by
    #15

    So the male and the female, to use two elements of your list, do not exist within the same reality as god?

    yes. these concepts is our reality that we are dependent on. however things like gender doesnt apply to GOD. GOD is neither male nor female etc.

    How do you understand the "We are closer to you than your jugular vein"?

    GOD is not fix within a space or location. This is not about location. GOD is not near to me like as close as my jugular vein. IF so, it will contradiction verse like 7143. So the verse is clearly symbolic to represent GOD awareness and knowledge of us internally. meaning HE is aware of our closest and private thoughts etc. That verse says "we know what he whispers to himself."

    honestly if GOD is confine within our realty, He is no a god, but dependent upon our the reality, obeying the laws and restrictions of our reality. but we learn this is not true (6 103, 3967, 3682).

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      Arnold
      wrote on last edited by
      #16

      So the male and the female, to use two elements of your list, do not exist within the same reality as god? How do you understand the "We are closer to you than your jugular vein"?

      And, not to mention that the Quran clearly calls God "he" numerous times.

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        SatanHatesMe
        wrote on last edited by
        #17

        And, not to mention that the Quran clearly calls God "he" numerous times.

        if GOD is a "he" as in male, then he is not one and only since he is the second part of a pair. but that will contradict 573.

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          nadeem
          wrote on last edited by
          #18

          Peace,

          'He' in arabis is also used for 'it'.

          Nadeem

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            Arnold
            wrote on last edited by
            #19

            Peace,

            'He' in arabis is also used for 'it'.

            Nadeem

            Can she be used for it too? Why didn't it just say it if that's what it meant? I hate excuses.

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              nadeem
              wrote on last edited by
              #20

              Peace Arnold,

              'She' is also used for 'it'. Feminine objects, animate or inanimate, take 'she'. Masculine, animate or inanimate, take 'he'. There is no seperate word for 'it' in arabic which should answer your second question.

              Nadeem

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                Arnold
                wrote on last edited by
                #21

                Peace Arnold,

                'She' is also used for 'it'. Feminine objects, animate or inanimate, take 'she'. Masculine, animate or inanimate, take 'he'. There is no seperate word for 'it' in arabic which should answer your second question.

                Nadeem

                So allah is male then I suppose. But I hear Muslims say that Allah is neither male nor female, probably to make the religion look fair and equal between men and women. But I don't see where the Quran interchanges between male and female or he and she. Both he and she mean it.

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                  God_alone
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #22

                  I agree with SHM angel

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                    nadeem
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #23

                    So allah is male then I suppose. But I hear Muslims say that Allah is neither male nor female, probably to make the religion look fair and equal between men and women. But I don't see where the Quran interchanges between male and female or he and she. Both he and she mean it.

                    Peace,

                    No. Being grammatically masculine or feminine doesn't mean that the object has penis or a vagina.

                    For example, in norwegian, the couch/sofa is feminine. If in english we say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy it", then in norwegian we'll say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy her".

                    Get it?

                    If my arabic was any better I'd give you examples from arabic.

                    Nadeem

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                      Arnold
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #24

                      Peace,

                      No. Being grammatically masculine or feminine doesn't mean that the object has penis or a vagina.

                      For example, in norwegian, the couch/sofa is feminine. If in english we say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy it", then in norwegian we'll say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy her".

                      Get it?

                      No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.

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                        Jack
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #25

                        the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.

                        that's the funniest thing i've ever read, oh yeah the 'judeo christian scriptures' don't blame 'adam's sin on eve' ! Not at all !

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                          unknownuser
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #26

                          No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.

                          Wow, I thought my Arabic and foreign language skills were bad, but pinning a grand Quranic conspiracy on 3rd grade grammar, superb, just superb.

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                            Samia
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #27

                            No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.

                            Second lesson in Arabic for you

                            Arabic has three genders expressed by two particles he and she, no speific particle for the non-specified-gendered/neutre nouns. (i.e a bi-gendered language)

                            ***"She" is specific to feminine (humans; objects; animals; plants..);

                            ***"he" is specific to
                            1- masculine (humans; animals; objects; plants..) and

                            2- The "unkown/neutre/genderless", whether it is a creation or God Himself. For "someone" or "nobody" for example, in Arabic we refer to this person as "he", who might turn out to be a "she". This has nothing to do with faith or fairness. Each language has its characteristics. You cannot refer to something wihout gender except in languages that have three particles for the three cases of gender. French is the same as Arabic in this since it is a bi-gendered language. English, though not gendered, has its gender-based bias. Language is not prejudiced. The way people use it is.

                            English is not gendered. How do we refer to "God" in English? If we say "She", then we decided that God is feminine. But if we want to refer to Him as "genderless", we use "He" which is also used for the neutre.

                            It is also worth noting that the masculine plual is either a group of males only, or a group where there is at least one male. A feminine plural is ONLY for a group of 100% females.

                            And a last note The women movement that inspired politically correct changes to the English language (e.g. chairperson instead of chairman; them/their instead of he/his; herstory for history of women...etc) was inspired or triggered by the heavy anti woman bias in the Christian thought (story of the Fall; longer impurity after birth of female than that of male...) and the bias in the usage of the English language in general {Mister/mistress; professional (for male) and professional (for female)}

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                              Arnold
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #28

                              that's the funniest thing i've ever read, oh yeah the 'judeo christian scriptures' don't blame 'adam's sin on eve' ! Not at all !

                              Read it again. i said that Muslims try to falsely represent Islam as the fairer religion between men and women. What part didn't you understand?

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                                Navid
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #29

                                1 Corinthians 1433-35 As in all the congregations of the saints, 34women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.

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                                • S Offline
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                                  SatanHatesMe
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #30

                                  No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.

                                  Arnold,
                                  I think you are mistaken. Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573). So it is clear he is neither male nor female. PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe.

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                                    Arnold
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #31

                                    Arnold,
                                    I think you are mistaken. Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573).

                                    What?

                                    573 He is the First and the Last, the Evident and the Immanent and He has full knowledge of all things

                                    How does a male Allah contradict this verse? In fact, it even uses the word "he".

                                    So it is clear he is neither male nor female.

                                    No it isn't clear. Don't be so hasty

                                    PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe.

                                    Most Gracious is feminine?

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                                      unknownuser
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #32

                                      Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573). So it is clear he is neither male nor female. PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe.
                                      You just presented a contradiction. ???

                                      Why is it mandatory for the God of the Quran to become gender specific (a male deity)? Why are all the "prophets" (impersonifiers) male?

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                                      • S Offline
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                                        savage_carrot
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #33

                                        No it isn't clear. Don't be so hasty

                                        http//free-minds.org80/forum/index.php?topic=14885.msg147857#msg147857

                                        Second lesson in Arabic for you

                                        Arabic has three genders expressed by two particles he and she, no speific particle for the non-specified-gendered/neutre nouns. (i.e a bi-gendered language)

                                        ***"She" is specific to feminine (humans; objects; animals; plants..);

                                        ***"he" is specific to
                                        1- masculine (humans; animals; objects; plants..) and

                                        2- The "unkown/neutre/genderless", whether it is a creation or God Himself. For "someone" or "nobody" for example, in Arabic we refer to this person as "he", who might turn out to be a "she". This has nothing to do with faith or fairness. Each language has its characteristics. You cannot refer to something wihout gender except in languages that have three particles for the three cases of gender. French is the same as Arabic in this since it is a bi-gendered language. English, though not gendered, has its gender-based bias. Language is not prejudiced. The way people use it is.

                                        English is not gendered. How do we refer to "God" in English? If we say "She", then we decided that God is feminine. But if we want to refer to Him as "genderless", we use "He" which is also used for the neutre.

                                        It is also worth noting that the masculine plual is either a group of males only, or a group where there is at least one male. A feminine plural is ONLY for a group of 100% females.

                                        And a last note The women movement that inspired politically correct changes to the English language (e.g. chairperson instead of chairman; them/their instead of he/his; herstory for history of women...etc) was inspired or triggered by the heavy anti woman bias in the Christian thought (story of the Fall; longer impurity after birth of female than that of male...) and the bias in the usage of the English language in general {Mister/mistress; professional (for male) and professional (for female)}

                                        For the sake of your own credibility and for the sake of good logical debate, at least try to comprehend basic stuff.

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                                        • U Offline
                                          U Offline
                                          unknownuser
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #34

                                          You just presented a contradiction. ???

                                          Why is it mandatory for the God of the Quran to become gender specific (a male deity)? Why are all the "prophets" (impersonifiers) male?

                                          The gender of a word has nothing to do with the gender of what it describes when the item itself lacks a gender?

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