where is Allah?
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Peace Arnold,
'She' is also used for 'it'. Feminine objects, animate or inanimate, take 'she'. Masculine, animate or inanimate, take 'he'. There is no seperate word for 'it' in arabic which should answer your second question.
Nadeem
So allah is male then I suppose. But I hear Muslims say that Allah is neither male nor female, probably to make the religion look fair and equal between men and women. But I don't see where the Quran interchanges between male and female or he and she. Both he and she mean it.
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So allah is male then I suppose. But I hear Muslims say that Allah is neither male nor female, probably to make the religion look fair and equal between men and women. But I don't see where the Quran interchanges between male and female or he and she. Both he and she mean it.
Peace,
No. Being grammatically masculine or feminine doesn't mean that the object has penis or a vagina.
For example, in norwegian, the couch/sofa is feminine. If in english we say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy it", then in norwegian we'll say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy her".
Get it?
If my arabic was any better I'd give you examples from arabic.
Nadeem
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Peace,
No. Being grammatically masculine or feminine doesn't mean that the object has penis or a vagina.
For example, in norwegian, the couch/sofa is feminine. If in english we say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy it", then in norwegian we'll say "That's a good sofa, I'll buy her".
Get it?
No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.
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No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.
Wow, I thought my Arabic and foreign language skills were bad, but pinning a grand Quranic conspiracy on 3rd grade grammar, superb, just superb.
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No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.
Second lesson in Arabic for you
Arabic has three genders expressed by two particles he and she, no speific particle for the non-specified-gendered/neutre nouns. (i.e a bi-gendered language)
***"She" is specific to feminine (humans; objects; animals; plants..);
***"he" is specific to
1- masculine (humans; animals; objects; plants..) and2- The "unkown/neutre/genderless", whether it is a creation or God Himself. For "someone" or "nobody" for example, in Arabic we refer to this person as "he", who might turn out to be a "she". This has nothing to do with faith or fairness. Each language has its characteristics. You cannot refer to something wihout gender except in languages that have three particles for the three cases of gender. French is the same as Arabic in this since it is a bi-gendered language. English, though not gendered, has its gender-based bias. Language is not prejudiced. The way people use it is.
English is not gendered. How do we refer to "God" in English? If we say "She", then we decided that God is feminine. But if we want to refer to Him as "genderless", we use "He" which is also used for the neutre.
It is also worth noting that the masculine plual is either a group of males only, or a group where there is at least one male. A feminine plural is ONLY for a group of 100% females.
And a last note The women movement that inspired politically correct changes to the English language (e.g. chairperson instead of chairman; them/their instead of he/his; herstory for history of women...etc) was inspired or triggered by the heavy anti woman bias in the Christian thought (story of the Fall; longer impurity after birth of female than that of male...) and the bias in the usage of the English language in general {Mister/mistress; professional (for male) and professional (for female)}
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that's the funniest thing i've ever read, oh yeah the 'judeo christian scriptures' don't blame 'adam's sin on eve' ! Not at all !
Read it again. i said that Muslims try to falsely represent Islam as the fairer religion between men and women. What part didn't you understand?
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1 Corinthians 1433-35 As in all the congregations of the saints, 34women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.
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No i don't get it, and you're merely hiding the reason that the Quran refers to Allah as "he". Brahma? Yes, i don't see a strong gender assignment to that. But Allah? who are you kidding? He's definitely male. Who cares if he has a penis or not, the Quran certainly did choose "he" and not "she", and in the Hindu scriptures, Brahma apparently has no gender ever mentioned, so it is indeed possible to write religious scriptures without referring to God in a gender, unless one intends to do so. So this is absolute bunk, and a little excuse that someone created for you to make Islam fit the modern day understanding of fairness where men and women are more equal than in Judaeo Christian scriptures.
Arnold,
I think you are mistaken. Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573). So it is clear he is neither male nor female. PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe. -
Arnold,
I think you are mistaken. Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573).What?
573 He is the First and the Last, the Evident and the Immanent and He has full knowledge of all things
How does a male Allah contradict this verse? In fact, it even uses the word "he".
So it is clear he is neither male nor female.
No it isn't clear. Don't be so hasty
PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe.
Most Gracious is feminine?
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Like I posted previously, if GOD is a male it will contradiction other verses of the Quran (573). So it is clear he is neither male nor female. PLUS, in Arabic, everything have gender value, even dirt. ALSO, there are indeed names of GOD within the Quran that indeed grammatically feminine (11 Ar-Rahman, Ar-Raheem) I believe.
You just presented a contradiction. ???Why is it mandatory for the God of the Quran to become gender specific (a male deity)? Why are all the "prophets" (impersonifiers) male?
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No it isn't clear. Don't be so hasty
http//free-minds.org80/forum/index.php?topic=14885.msg147857#msg147857
Second lesson in Arabic for you
Arabic has three genders expressed by two particles he and she, no speific particle for the non-specified-gendered/neutre nouns. (i.e a bi-gendered language)
***"She" is specific to feminine (humans; objects; animals; plants..);
***"he" is specific to
1- masculine (humans; animals; objects; plants..) and2- The "unkown/neutre/genderless", whether it is a creation or God Himself. For "someone" or "nobody" for example, in Arabic we refer to this person as "he", who might turn out to be a "she". This has nothing to do with faith or fairness. Each language has its characteristics. You cannot refer to something wihout gender except in languages that have three particles for the three cases of gender. French is the same as Arabic in this since it is a bi-gendered language. English, though not gendered, has its gender-based bias. Language is not prejudiced. The way people use it is.
English is not gendered. How do we refer to "God" in English? If we say "She", then we decided that God is feminine. But if we want to refer to Him as "genderless", we use "He" which is also used for the neutre.
It is also worth noting that the masculine plual is either a group of males only, or a group where there is at least one male. A feminine plural is ONLY for a group of 100% females.
And a last note The women movement that inspired politically correct changes to the English language (e.g. chairperson instead of chairman; them/their instead of he/his; herstory for history of women...etc) was inspired or triggered by the heavy anti woman bias in the Christian thought (story of the Fall; longer impurity after birth of female than that of male...) and the bias in the usage of the English language in general {Mister/mistress; professional (for male) and professional (for female)}
For the sake of your own credibility and for the sake of good logical debate, at least try to comprehend basic stuff.
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You just presented a contradiction. ???
Why is it mandatory for the God of the Quran to become gender specific (a male deity)? Why are all the "prophets" (impersonifiers) male?
The gender of a word has nothing to do with the gender of what it describes when the item itself lacks a gender?
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http//free-minds.org80/forum/index.php?topic=14885.msg147857#msg147857
i read it and it didn't make sense
***"She" is specific to feminine (humans; objects; animals; plants..);
***"he" is specific to
1- masculine (humans; animals; objects; plants..)So all you said is that he means masculine and she means feminine. So what? Everybody knows that. What's the point?
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So then why did the quran always choose "he" instead of "she"?
It uses feminine attributes also.
As for the sheer concept of gender, again, I would not blame the Quran. I would blame your brain for failing you and wronging your soul by not thinking before writing. Now, your ridiculous conception of the God as a male entity is refuted in 17111 and 1123-4, particularly 4.
For you and the other pre-schoolers there (pardon me if I am wrong, this is an estimate based on the logical content of your posts, and that alone), the role of a gender is simple. Male complements Female, but the ultimate purpose of genders is to ease reproduction, by balancing it between two living entities. Hence, the overwhelming majority of complex organisms have two genders, because a single parent would be destroyed very fast, meaning one "breadwinner" and one "carer" is required to balance the roles, and stay alive, and perpetuate the species. There are some things lacking a gender, but these don't live in a "dog-eat-dog" world - some plants, bacteria, virii and other things, which reproduce asexually.
To ascribe a gender to the creator of genders, well, if your brain is version 1.0 and above, you will have known why this is ridiculous, before even reading this sentence.
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So all you said is that he means masculine and she means feminine. So what? Everybody knows that. What's the point?
2- The "unkown/neutre/genderless", whether it is a creation or God Himself. For "someone" or "nobody" for example, in Arabic we refer to this person as "he", who might turn out to be a "she". This has nothing to do with faith or fairness. Each language has its characteristics. You cannot refer to something wihout gender except in languages that have three particles for the three cases of gender. French is the same as Arabic in this since it is a bi-gendered language. English, though not gendered, has its gender-based bias. Language is not prejudiced. The way people use it is.
English is not gendered. How do we refer to "God" in English? If we say "She", then we decided that God is feminine. But if we want to refer to Him as "genderless", we use "He" which is also used for the neutre.
It is also worth noting that the masculine plual is either a group of males only, or a group where there is at least one male. A feminine plural is ONLY for a group of 100% females.
"Everyone" apparently doesn't know or want to know the basics of this language, yet keep asking the same questions over and over when they have a simple explanation as above; it's in the way the language is.
So then why did the quran always choose "he" instead of "she"?
Why does the English language call God He? Is God a male instead of a Genderless Living White Sphere Beyond The Veil Of The Abyss?