Does Quran prohibit ?
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...so unless we arrive to the understanding of the meaning of verses 415-16, we will not know
the exact "fahisha" other than "zina" which is punishable
what exactly is its the punishment
why there are two different punishments to the same fahisha
or perhaps the fahisha in verse 15 is different from that of verse 16Until then, all we can be satisfied with (its understanding) is the punishment by 100 lashes for zina on both parties evidenced by 4 sound witnesses.
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I believe it deals with homosexuality, as I said earlier, the verses are entirely complementary to each other. Look at 242, where it mentions a man and a woman (2 people) and likewise, in 416, 2 males.
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and what's verse 415 about?
Same.
Take into consideration the biological differences and how they relate
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Sister Samia,
Yup, like I said, back to square one. Br. OPF's understanding of the word, "Al-Fahasha" is the same
Same as what?
Same.
Take into consideration the biological differences and how they relate
You mean about lesbianism? Then why is the punishment different (based on gender), and even more severe for lesbians?
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Same as what?
You mean about lesbianism? Then why is the punishment different (based on gender), and even more severe for lesbians?
Where's the "even more severe punishment"? I only see one punishment in those 2 verses.
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Life imprisonment?
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Life imprisonment?
This one is for women, 15, more like house arrest.
16 speaks of "aathuuhuma punishing/hurting" but nothing specific.
If it was the same punishment, why not just put them in the same verse as that of "zina"?I also wonder if it is the same crime Why does the first verse speak of women in the plural and the second of men in the dual?
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I don't know where you can find it; but here is the meaning
415 and those (feminine plural)
416 and the two (masculine dual)Pardon me, Sister Samia, but what is a "masculine dual"? Because this is the only instance in the book where this word is used. What is the root word for it?
Peace
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dual = 2
masculine = male
allathaani = 2 allathi 2(he who) = the two who,
You also find it in 4129 in the accusative form (as object) allathayn "...Our Lord! show us those among both jinn and humans who led us astray..."Peace sister Samia,
Thanks for the clarification. One more question though, is allathayn also a masculine form?
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Yes, it is masculine. It is allathaani itself, just grammatical difference, like the difference between al kitaabu and al kitaaba (the book)
Sister Samia,
An honest question, then. If allathayn is masculine but which is meant to address both men and women, then is it possible that "allathaani" ("the two who" could stand to mean a man or a woman? or am I mistaken in someway? I apologize for being a bother.
Peace
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Sister Samia,
An honest question, then. If allathayn is masculine but which is meant to address both men and women, then is it possible that "allathaani" ("the two who" could stand to mean a man or a woman? or am I mistaken in someway? I apologize for being a bother.
Peace
or rather both those of the invisible beings and humans as Muhammad Asad puts it? Please.
Peace,
Hasan Akcay -
Sister Samia,
An honest question, then. If allathayn is masculine but which is meant to address both men and women, then is it possible that "allathaani" ("the two who" could stand to mean a man or a woman? or am I mistaken in someway? I apologize for being a bother.
Peace
An excellent observation and I do not know how it evaded me! Of course, it could, and maybe it is a man and a woman!!
or rather both those of the invisible beings and humans as Muhammad Asad puts it? Please.
Peace,
Hasan AkcayMost probably Asad based his translation on the only other occurence of the word which is in the context of humans and invisible beings. It is a probable understanding, but a man and a woman is more probable, especially that chapter 4 does not mention "the invisibles jinn" in any of its verses.