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  4. Verb taqsuroo in 4:101.

Verb taqsuroo in 4:101.

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  • Q Offline
    Q Offline
    Q_student
    wrote on last edited by
    #12

    Salaam student

    Don't go into circles. When the dictionaries say that "ma malakat aymanukum" means slaves/sex slaves, do you accept it because they said so or not? Why?
    When the dictionaries tell you that nasakha means to copy and also means to delete, do you accept it or not, and why?
    My reference in understanding any word is the qur'aan. No matter which one, or how many grammarians say what, if it contradicts the qur'aan, I ignore it. I do not know what your refernce is. But definitely not the qur'aan.
    Is it a matter of time until we know how long the salaat is? Why don't you say it directly 24434 ? This is what the dictionary authors believe and adjust the meaning to shorten it to 22232.

    Dear Samia
    Stick to your understanding ,I do not force you to accept what these authorities say.Naturally no one can.
    There is no solution for state of denial.
    Regards

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    • S Offline
      S Offline
      Samia
      wrote on last edited by
      #13

      Dear Samia
      Stick to your understanding
      Regards

      I will until I find a counter convincing argument.

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      • U Offline
        U Offline
        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #14

        Dear Samia
        Stick to your understanding ,I do not force you to accept what these authorities say.Naturally no one can.
        There is no solution for state of denial.
        Regards

        ah, one more obsession people! i.e AUTHORITIES

        SubhanAllah

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        • B Offline
          B Offline
          brook
          wrote on last edited by
          #15

          http//fotogaleri.samanyoluhaber.com/galeri/615/2
          Turkish soldiers perform their prayer during a lull at the War of the Dardanelles, 1915.

          In another debate in this forum nerspi asks what were people doing in 4102? work out? train?

          War is killing and dying on the front where no training happens, just like the performance of tragedy on the stage during which no training happens.

          The people in 4102 were definitely practicing a salat consisting of 1 standing + 1 prostration.

          Peace,
          Hasan Ak?ay

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          • WakasW Offline
            WakasW Offline
            Wakas
            wrote on last edited by
            #16

            The people in 4102 were definitely practicing a salat consisting of 1 standing + 1 prostration.

            http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9598240.msg199419#msg199419

            Going by other usage also. The Quranic evidence is weighted in favour of sjd not meaning a physical prostration. This is FACT.

            All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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            • B Offline
              B Offline
              brook
              wrote on last edited by
              #17

              Wakas

              1. There is no clear example of anyone doing this physically in AQ when hearing God's words.

              AQ says those particular people did it rather than anyone.

              1. To do this whenever we heard God's words it would be impractical/dangerous.

              Prostration is definitely phisical as is examplified by prosrtation to the sun and the moon (2724, 4137), but the expression to the chin is idiomatic. Samia (http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=15172.75)

              108 And they "Glory to our Lord! The promise of our Lord must be fulfilled
              109 And they fall down to their chins weeping and it increases their "humility" ,
              It is clear that "fall to the hin" is an (idiomatic) expression and that their reaction was that of being humble ( ; sajada kasha3a to be humble/fearful)

              1. 4102 already tells us that salat ends upon sjd, so if salat involves reciting or listening to God's words (which is what AQ strongly implies) then pretty much as soon as salat began, we would have to fall to the chin in sjd, thus ending the salat as per 4102, meaning it would last less than 20 seconds!

              Believers are people of common sense to remember God by sitting long enough after sjd before quitting salaat. Even if you refuse that they have that much common sense, there is standing to rememeber God in salaat's 1 satanding + 1 sjd practice in 4102.

              Peace,
              Hasan Ak?ay

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              • Q Offline
                Q Offline
                Q_student
                wrote on last edited by
                #18

                Wakas

                1. There is no clear example of anyone doing this physically in AQ when hearing God's words.

                AQ says those particular people did it rather than anyone.

                1. To do this whenever we heard God's words it would be impractical/dangerous.

                Prostration is definitely phisical as is examplified by prosrtation to the sun and the moon (2724, 4137), but the expression to the chin is idiomatic. Samia (http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=15172.75)

                108 And they "Glory to our Lord! The promise of our Lord must be fulfilled
                109 And they fall down to their chins weeping and it increases their "humility" ,
                It is clear that "fall to the hin" is an (idiomatic) expression and that their reaction was that of being humble ( ; sajada kasha3a to be humble/fearful)

                1. 4102 already tells us that salat ends upon sjd, so if salat involves reciting or listening to God's words (which is what AQ strongly implies) then pretty much as soon as salat began, we would have to fall to the chin in sjd, thus ending the salat as per 4102, meaning it would last less than 20 seconds!

                Believers are people of common sense to remember God by sitting long enough after sjd before quitting salaat. Even if you refuse that they have that much common sense, there is standing to rememeber God in salaat's 1 satanding + 1 sjd practice in 4102.

                Peace,
                Hasan Ak?ay

                Peace
                In fact sister Samia put only one part of the meaning of the word "sajada". I do not know the reason why she avoided the second part of the meaning. This word has both meanings
                1Humbleness /Submissiveness
                2Bending

                • ( 1 / 12166)
                  to prostrate oneself (in worship), genuflect, kneel (with the forehead touching the ground), bow (down), throw oneself down, fall down in adoration; to worship (God)

                • ( 3 / 133)
                  (&#1583 .
                  Regards

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                • S Offline
                  S Offline
                  Samia
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #19

                  Peace
                  In fact sister Samia put only one part of the meaning of the word "sajada". I do not know the reason why she avoided the second part of the meaning.

                  I do not know why you are putting this here. This will derail the thread further to the meaning of sjd.
                  But yes, I look into the root meaning, and any meaning that is logically derived from it, not from a preconception. Did the dictionaris give context for the usage of this word other from "religion"? It's interesting to mention that in Sudan, sjd is also used to describe the state of someone in a terminal illness or in a state of very old age, as if saying they are submitting to death. It reflects the real meaning of the verb. In the quraan we are told that the sun and the planets did sujuud. How did they bend? This word has been extensively discussed.
                  Learn how to make use of dictionaries and how to recognize the preconceptions in them. Don't make them your mullas.

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                  • Q Offline
                    Q Offline
                    Q_student
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #20

                    I do not know why you are putting this here. This will derail the thread further to the meaning of sjd.
                    But yes, I look into the root meaning, and any meaning that is logically derived from it, not from a preconception. Did the dictionaris give context for the usage of this word other from "religion"? It's interesting to mention that in Sudan, sjd is also used to describe the state of someone in a terminal illness or in a state of very old age, as if saying they are submitting to death. It reflects the real meaning of the verb. In the quraan we are told that the sun and the planets did sujuud. How did they bend? This word has been extensively discussed.
                    Learn how to make use of dictionaries and how to recognize the preconceptions in them. Don't make them your mullas.

                    Dear sister
                    I will not comment who does not know how to consult dictionary or interpret it. I can give examples but I will not do it.These are not my mullahs. But I hate to issue Quranic Certificates to PROSTITUTION in the name of Quran and tacit support to this idea.
                    Quran is in Arabic Language for understanding. It cannot afford home made meanings and ideas.
                    Regards

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                    • WakasW Offline
                      WakasW Offline
                      Wakas
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #21

                      peace Hasan,

                      AQ = Al Quran

                      AQ says those particular people did it rather than anyone.

                      Ahh, so you are implying it was only specific to them, and not relevant for others? Hmm, for sake of argument lets say thats true, what do you make of

                      And when the Qur'an is being read unto them, they do not sjd.

                      The only people who believe in Our revelations are those whom when they are reminded by them, they fall sjd, and they glorify the praise of their Lord, and they are not arrogant.

                      According to you, are we meant to physically prostrate whenever hearing AQ? Yes or no?
                      Or is this specific to them too?

                      Prostration is definitely phisical as is examplified by prosrtation to the sun and the moon (2724, 4137)

                      This is a commonly cited example in support of prostration. What is seemingly not realised is that several Classical Arabic meanings of sjd can fit in these occurrences, making physical prostration not the only option, e.g. submissive, worship, adore, make obeisance, to salute/honour/magnify, to pay respect.

                      Please note, "ila" means to/for.

                      Re 2724
                      AQ clarifies it was their "deeds" (plural) that were made pleasing/good/acceptable/fair to them by "satan".
                      what diverted/prevented her and her people was their ibadat/servitude of other than God
                      Note the difference in the wording between found/wajad sjd in 2724, and Joseph seeing/raay sjd in 124.

                      In other words, the rest of the Quranic evidence is against sjd/prostration in this verse. Your only evidence is the word can theoretically mean prostration here. That is also likely why no-one has (as far as I'm aware) and likely never will write an article analysing the occurrences of sjd in AQ attempting to prove it means physical prostration, as they know or would discover they have so little "evidence" to work with the article would end up disproving their case.

                      Believers are people of common sense to remember God by sitting long enough after sjd before quitting salaat. Even if you refuse that they have that much common sense, there is standing to rememeber God in salaat's 1 satanding + 1 sjd practice in 4102.

                      Are you implying that people are expected to have more common sense than the wording of AQ???? This is a conceptual impossibility/contradiction.

                      Allow me re-state what I said in no uncertain terms
                      The evidence from AQ is heavily weighted in favour of sjd NOT meaning a physical prostration. This is FACT. The main point in the examples you bring is that prostration is not the only possibility, however in the other examples AQ can bring it is an impossibility for it to mean prostration, and that is not even including other verses where it is unlikely. People can make of this what they wish.

                      I recommend reading the following thread http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=7428.0

                      In any case, at least we can agree that "sjd to the chin" is an idiomatic expression.

                      To summarise, from my studies, sjd is an actionable representation of "hearing and obeying" or "giving recognition/acknowledgement", whatever form it takes (unless being used idiomatically of course). If we may think outside the box for a moment have you ever observed a tree swaying in the direction the wind takes it in? This is my conceptual understanding of sjd. I believe this is akin to the example given in AQ to do with shadows and sjd . Of course, God knows best.

                      All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                      • E Offline
                        E Offline
                        No longer a Sunna-rejecter
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #22

                        http//www.19.org/index.php?aid=276

                        I am no longer a Sunna-rejecter. See 4:59-65, 62:2-4, 3:31, 4:156, 7:157 Messenger teaches and is to be followed and obeyed. Examples of revelation received which is not in the Qur'an: 3:123-126, 33:37, 2:187, 66:3, 62:9.

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                        • S Offline
                          S Offline
                          Samia
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #23

                          Dear sister
                          I will not comment who does not know how to consult dictionary or interpret it. I can give examples but I will not do it.These are not my mullahs. But I hate to issue Quranic Certificates to PROSTITUTION in the name of Quran and tacit support to this idea.
                          Quran is in Arabic Language for understanding. It cannot afford home made meanings and ideas.
                          Regards

                          I consider this a baseles attack and defamation. I demand that you give your evidence where I gave such certificate, implictly or explicitly.

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                          • WakasW Offline
                            WakasW Offline
                            Wakas
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #24

                            http//www.19.org/index.php?aid=276

                            The above article does not prove "prostration" and I dont think it is an attempt to. It seems to be about proving a physical component is possible in sjd.

                            However, the article brought up one point that could have interesting consequences, which I had not realised until now after putting the peices together.

                            The correlation (or making equivalent) of

                            the sjd and fall/khrr sjd to/for him
                            AND
                            the sjd and fall/khrr sjd

                            Before discussing the consequences, 124 and 12100 needs clarified, because in some translations (e.g. M.Asad, free-minds) they say/imply Joseph and his parents fell sjd to Him (as in God), but this is not correct according to 124 because in his dream Joseph saw sjd to/for/before him, not God. Some take it to mean Joseph's parents fell sjd to/for Joseph, but this is also not correct, because the plural is used for khrr, meaning 3 or more, and since in 1293 it clearly implies those who returned to be in the company of Joseph were his family (e.g. brothers) and parents, likely 11 family members and the sun and moon in his dream being symbolic for his parents, we can see why the plural is used. Interestingly, M.Asad in his notes on 12100 says earlier "scholars" said it cannot be sjd/prostrate to Joseph, as it is inconceivable that Joseph would have allowed this. Also see 2725. Can we all see what is going on here?

                            Also, whenever fall/khrr is used in the context of revelation, it is obviously idiomatic. Therefore, if the case is strong for non-prostration usage in "fall sjd", we can then apply this to 12100 and see what happens.

                            Since Joseph was in authority and in a position to issue commands to be followed, similar to the examples for God and His revelations, "fall sjd" can mean the exact same thing in both cases. That is why the earlier "scholars" cited by M.Asad had difficulty reconciling a physical prostration to Joseph, as this is inconceivable conceptually for them, they opted for "fall sjd" to Him (as in God). Since we know this is blatantly incorrect according to 124, we are left with only one option "they fell sjd to/for Joseph". Of course, earlier "scholars" may not have considered the non-prostration option or tried to explain their understanding away*, due to their bias/upbringing that taught them sjd means physical prostration.
                            Essentially, the traditional understanding is treating an idiomatic expression as literal sometimes (i.e. when it suits them) and non-literal other times (i.e. when it suits them). This haphazrd manner is not the word/logical precision par excellence that is AQ.

                            *see altafsir.com in which Tafsir al-Jalalayn says "fell sjd" means a bow and not a prostration. Elswhere sjd means prostration however.

                            Now onto the consequences of the point raised in the article, which I will quote below

                            "Most times it is preceded by the word "Khar'a" (fall down), which adds to "prostration" to let us know that it is indeed physical prostration. If "prostration" was automatically understood as physical, there would be no need to add "Khar'a" along with it." He later quotes verse 12100 which describes how Joseph's vision/dream was fulfilled. That verse uses the words "fall" and "prostrate" together. But, Layth forgets that in the beginning of the chapter, Joseph's vision that describes the very event described in 12100 uses ONLY one word SaJeDeen, which means "they were prostrating."

                            Here, the article uses the correlation between 124 and 12100 to imply it does mean "prostration", BUT using the same logic, what about the correlation between the sjd and fall/khrr sjd (i.e. the exact same comparison)? If you are equating them in 124 and 12100, then if you take prostration for one, you should take prostration for the other, otherwise it will be logically inconsistant and/or a contradiction in one's views. Thus, the implication is, whenever one hears AQ, they should physically prostrate if one holds the same view as the article on this point.
                            Unless, it can be explained away of course.

                            Of course, with the recent evidence on 4102, we know "fall sjd" can only be idiomatic / non-physical, but for those with a sjd/prostration understanding, they are between a rock and a hard place, as the idiomatic expression goes.

                            All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                            • E Offline
                              E Offline
                              No longer a Sunna-rejecter
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #25

                              @ Wakas

                              I am not sure if you fully understood the article. Nevertheless I will quote the following from it

                              Layth makes an interesting point "Most times it is preceded by the word "Khar'a" (fall down), which adds to "prostration" to let us know that it is indeed physical prostration. If "prostration" was automatically understood as physical, there would be no need to add "Khar'a" along with it." He later quotes verse 12100 which describes how Joseph's vision/dream was fulfilled. That verse uses the words "fall" and "prostrate" together. But, Layth forgets that in the beginning of the chapter, Joseph's vision that describes the very event described in 12100 uses ONLY one word SaJeDeen, which means "they were prostrating."

                              So it is both phyiscal and mental.

                              I am no longer a Sunna-rejecter. See 4:59-65, 62:2-4, 3:31, 4:156, 7:157 Messenger teaches and is to be followed and obeyed. Examples of revelation received which is not in the Qur'an: 3:123-126, 33:37, 2:187, 66:3, 62:9.

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                              • Q Offline
                                Q Offline
                                Q_student
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #26

                                @ Wakas

                                I am not sure if you fully understood the article. Nevertheless I will quote the following from it

                                Layth makes an interesting point "Most times it is preceded by the word "Khar'a" (fall down), which adds to "prostration" to let us know that it is indeed physical prostration. If "prostration" was automatically understood as physical, there would be no need to add "Khar'a" along with it." He later quotes verse 12100 which describes how Joseph's vision/dream was fulfilled. That verse uses the words "fall" and "prostrate" together. But, Layth forgets that in the beginning of the chapter, Joseph's vision that describes the very event described in 12100 uses ONLY one word SaJeDeen, which means "they were prostrating."

                                So it is both phyiscal and mental.

                                Dear Brother
                                I do not believe that it is Layth's statement.
                                Layth is an Arab.If he does not know that the verb used is "Kharra" not "khar'a" what can you expect out of him.
                                Regards

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                                • WakasW Offline
                                  WakasW Offline
                                  Wakas
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #27

                                  @ Wakas

                                  I am not sure if you fully understood the article.

                                  So it is both phyiscal and mental.

                                  Of course it is both physical and mental! Just like giving to charity is both physical and mental, just like writing is both physical and mental, just like lying is both physical and mental etc etc.

                                  What I am addressing is the evidence FOR/AGAINST sjd meaning physical prostration. If you, or anyone, thinks it is physical prostration, then simply explain away the points I have written about. The only way out of it is to accept "fall sjd" is idiomatic, then all the evidence left is it can theoretically mean physical prostration in a few occurrences, that is it.... just like it can mean "to salute" etc like other Classical Arabic meanings of sjd.... in other words, this is not evidence.

                                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                  • E Offline
                                    E Offline
                                    No longer a Sunna-rejecter
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #28

                                    Of course it is both physical and mental! Just like giving to charity is both physical and mental, just like writing is both physical and mental, just like lying is both physical and mental etc etc.

                                    What I am addressing is the evidence FOR/AGAINST sjd meaning physical prostration. If you, or anyone, thinks it is physical prostration, then simply explain away the points I have written about. The only way out of it is to accept "fall sjd" is idiomatic, then all the evidence left is it can theoretically mean physical prostration in a few occurrences, that is it.... just like it can mean "to salute" etc like other Classical Arabic meanings of sjd.... in other words, this is not evidence.

                                    I think that you still didnt read the quote clearly, so here it is again

                                    Layth makes an interesting point "Most times it is preceded by the word "Khar'a" (fall down), which adds to "prostration" to let us know that it is indeed physical prostration. If "prostration" was automatically understood as physical, there would be no need to add "Khar'a" along with it." He later quotes verse 12100 which describes how Joseph's vision/dream was fulfilled. That verse uses the words "fall" and "prostrate" together. But, Layth forgets that in the beginning of the chapter, Joseph's vision that describes the very event described in 12100 uses ONLY one word SaJeDeen, which means "they were prostrating."

                                    I am no longer a Sunna-rejecter. See 4:59-65, 62:2-4, 3:31, 4:156, 7:157 Messenger teaches and is to be followed and obeyed. Examples of revelation received which is not in the Qur'an: 3:123-126, 33:37, 2:187, 66:3, 62:9.

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                                    • B Offline
                                      B Offline
                                      brook
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #29

                                      Peace Wakas.

                                      Wakas There is no clear example of anyone doing this physically in AQ when hearing God's words. Hasan AQ says those particular people did it rather than anyone.

                                      By those particular people I meant the people mentioned in 17107. They were endowed with innate knowledge. As a result, they were moved to such a great extent on hearing God's words that they prostrated to the chin, that is, with humility. It was a particular event taking place under particular circumstances.

                                      You seem to assume that I imply certain things. Please do not assume. It is enough to cite the facts as I will try now.

                                      Nerspi's question What were the people doing in 4102? Training? My answer NO! They were not training. They were Muslim soldiers exposed to the attack of their "open foes". No trainig takes place under the threat of armed attack.

                                      In my post I likened the war front, where the Prophet and his friends were, to the stage where a play is being performed. During the intermissions between the stages of the play the actors and actresses may choose to drink coffee on the stage or even pray for better success but they never receive any training over there. Just like that, at the times when armed conflict ceases on the front for some reason the soldiers may eat their meals and perform their prayers but never receive training. I referred to a photo of the Turkish soldiers perfoming their prayer during the Battles of the Dardanelles, 1915, to examplify the case. http//fotogaleri.samanyoluhaber.com/galeri/615/2

                                      The people in 4102 were performing 1 qm + 1 sjd of salaat. You say that sjd mentioned in a passage may be phisical or mental depending on the context, so the salaat consisiting of 1 qm + 1 sjd mentioned in 4102 is phisical.

                                      Hasan Ak?ay

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                                      • WakasW Offline
                                        WakasW Offline
                                        Wakas
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #30

                                        peace Hasan,

                                        Do you plan on ignorig the rest of my questions? I thought I'd better ask rather than assume, as requested.

                                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                        • WakasW Offline
                                          WakasW Offline
                                          Wakas
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #31

                                          I think that you still didnt read the quote clearly, so here it is again

                                          Perhaps I understood perfectly and it is you who has misunderstood?

                                          In any case, each to their own. Peace.

                                          All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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