Beating wife theory is negated by Qur'aan=4:34
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Beating is humiliation, no matter how, from the moment a hand is raised. Try do it to a child, just touching them with one finger. They will burst crying, not because it was painful, but because they know you are angry and are punishing them.
Moreover, why respond to me with the silly traditionalist justification? Where does it say in the verse (lightly) or with anything? Just as I guessed, they water down their sick explanation by adding mitigating words to the verse such as "lightly", "not painful", "with a handkershief"...his
With all this, he stipulated in his sermon on the occasion of
the Farewell Pilgrimage, shortly before his death, that beating should be resorted to only
if the wife "has become guilty, in an obvious manner, of immoral conduct",Does this mean the prophet did know the qur'aan, and could not recollect that the quraan explains what to do in case of the obvious manner of immoral conduct (246)?
And why are you quoting hadith? -
So prophet Mohammed beat his slaves?
How can you beat someone up without causing any pain?it is difficult but not impossible. it needs lil practice. peace
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Peace
MUHAMMAD ASADHIS EXPLANATORY NOTE
Regards
rotfl looooooooooooool Q_s.... you get mad at me for quoting Hadiths when I mock them bu then quote Hadiths with a silly explanation of a Quarnic verse.
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rotfl looooooooooooool Q_s.... you get mad at me for quoting Hadiths when I mock them bu then quote Hadiths with a silly exmplanation of a Quarnic verse.
give him another chance he would come with better explanation inshaAllah.
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Peace
I am not quoting Hadiths. I am quoting "Muhammad Asad".
Regardsyes that is not same, its different when you quote one of the most latest authorities.
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I am not quoting Hadiths.
Of course not...
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Is this supposed to be a response to my question?
How does "dharaba" become "punish"? Can you find such a meaning in classical arabic dictionaries?
The translator simply couldn't say "strike them/beat them up", because he will have to say which part of the body and with what, and even then, it will no more be "dharaba", but "latama", sakka", rafasa"...many many words. The meaning "strike/beat" does not stand for "dharaba" by itself.Salaam,
what do you think about 273 and 3793 in these verses there is no mention of any specific part of body
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat2_files/2_73.gif
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat37_files/37_93.gif
I havn't seen any example where darb mean "beat" without mentioning of "with what" so you seem right about that though.
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Salaam,
what do you think about 273 and 3793 in these verses there is no mention of any specific part of body
I havn't seen any example where darb mean "beat" without mentioning of "with what" so you seem right about that though.
That is truly a very interesting observation. This alone would prove that "idribuhunne" in 434 does not say "beat them".
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Most Christians believe in one God, they just get a little confused with this trinity thing (which, of course was not in the early Christian Church, was put there by the Church of Rome about 900 years ago)
Actually, that happened a bit less than 1700 years ago.
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Salaam,
what do you think about 273 and 3793 in these verses there is no mention of any specific part of body
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat2_files/2_73.gif
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat37_files/37_93.gif
I havn't seen any example where darb mean "beat" without mentioning of "with what" so you seem right about that though.
Peace ;
Brother ! your observation is not correct.It is not essential to describe the "weapon" with which to do "dharaba".Regards
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Which chapter number is that verse in?
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Peace ;
Brother ! your observation is not correct.It is not essential to describe the "weapon" with which to do "dharaba".Regards
yes here the part of body is mentioned. do you have any example where darb mean beat without the mention of "where" or "with what"?
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yes here the part of body is mentioned. do you have any example where darb mean beat without the mention of "where" or "with what"?
Peace
You need to mention only "Maf3ool Bihi " after the verb "Dharaba".If you mention "weapon" or not that is immaterial as in the verses I have given you as an example.
Seebavayh in his famous book "alkitab" gives the following example.-
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Regards
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Regards
Please bring such example from quran if you are truthful or accept your fault.
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Please bring such example from quran if you are truthful or accept your fault.
Peace
Arabic language existed before Quran was revealed. We need to know Arabic to understand Quran. No doubt Quran has used many words ,but not all the construction or verbs and structures are used by the Quran. 434 is very good example for it.Othewise Classical arabic examples can explain the Quranic constructions.It is the reason all scholars modren or old have been relying on the Classical Arabic literature.
Regards