Female servants and maids

kgwithnob

(1675), ALLH Almighty presents an example of an owned slave who spends on the needy from his own money. In the sight of ALLH, he's way higher in rank than his avaricious (so-called) master.

SLM.

I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

1675,

Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

Peace,
Khalil

hicham9

... the verses which allegedly supports slavery are misunderstood and rather mean servants that are bound by contract to you. Never in my life I can believe God is supporting slavery. Thanks for mentioning 960, it makes the Truth more clear. God does not support slavery but is actually anti-slavery. The verses with right hand possesses must mean something else.

I fully agree my brother, the Qur'anic term/concept in question is definitely misunderstood by many! ALLH Almighty does not support slavery AT ALL, rather He condemns it, and demands the liberation of slaves by manumission, even if one has to purchase them first.

I personally believe that "maa malakat aymanukum" is related to "legal relationships", such as marriage. For example, in 423-24, ALLH Almighty prohobits intimate relationships with our

mothers
daughters
sisters
father's sisters
mother's sisters
brother's daughters
sister's daughters
0 mothers who nursed us
sisters through nursing
wives' mothers
step-daughters (except if you didn't have sex with her mother)
wives of our biological sons
two sisters simultaneously
Married women ( &#1616

Exactly after "married women" ALLH Almighty states "EXCEPT "maa malakat aymanukum". Meaning, I'm prohibited from having sex with married women EXCEPT the woman with whom I'm bound by oath (my beloved wife). How is this related to slavery again?!!!

diamantinehoneybunch

I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

1675,

Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

Peace,
Khalil

Salaam,

Hmmmmmm you are a supporter of Marmaduke Pickthall and his translation aren't you? And you justify slavery using his translation.

Pickthall was the one who translated the word idribuhunne in verse 434 into scourge.
By the way pardon me if the translation you use is not Pickthall's.

Why do you support slavery anyway?

Kind regards,
Yuliana

kgwithnob

Salaam,

Hmmmmmm you are a supporter of Marmaduke Pickthall and his translation aren't you? And you justify slavery using his translation.

Pickthall was the one who translated the word idribuhunne in verse 434 into scourge.
By the way pardon me if the translation you use is not Pickthall's.

Why do you support slavery anyway?

Kind regards,
Yuliana

1stHow about EIGHT English translations of verse 1675, OTHER THAN Pickthall's, below?

Sahih International Allah presents an example a slave owned and unable to do a thing and he to whom We have provided from Us good provision, so he spends from it secretly and publicly. Can they be equal? Praise to Allah ! But most of them do not know.

Yufus Ali Allah sets forth the Parable (of two men one) a slave under the dominion of another; He has no power of any sort; and (the other) a man on whom We have bestowed goodly favours from Ourselves, and he spends thereof (freely), privately and publicly are the two equal? (By no means praise be to Allah. But most of them understand not.

Shakir Allah sets forth a parable (consider) a slave, the property of another, (who) has no power over anything, and one whom We have granted from Ourselves a goodly sustenance so he spends from it secretly and openly; are the two alike? (All) praise is due to Allah! Nay, most of them do not know.

Muhammad Sarwar God tells a parable about a helpless servant and one to whom He has given honorable provisions and who has spent for the cause of God privately and in public. Can these two people be considered equal? It is only God who deserves all praise, but most people do not know.

Mohsin Khan Allah puts forward the example (of two men a believer and a disbeliever); a slave (disbeliever) under the possession of another, he has no power of any sort, and (the other), a man (believer) on whom We have bestowed a good provision from Us, and He spends thereof secretly and openly. Can they be equal? (By no means, not). All the praises and thanks be to Allah. Nay! (But) most of them know not.

Arberry God has struck a similitude a servant possessed by his master, having no power over anything, and one whom We have provided of Ourselves with a provision fair, and he expends of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise belongs to God! Nay, most of them know not.

Daryabadi Allah propoundeth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath not power over aught; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

Mufti Taqi Usm Allah gives an example There is a slave owned (by someone), who has no power over anything, and there is a person whom We have given good provision from Us, and he spends out of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise be to Allah. But, most of them do not know

2ndlease read my original post below, in its entirety, then judge me.

http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9605590.msg332907#msg332907

Peace,
Khalil

hicham9

I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

Dear khalil,

Calm down a little! Take a deep breath and act rationally as you proceed.
No human is infallible... further, we're discussing the Book of God, not the Book of kgwithnob!

You interpret "" (i.e., and whom) as "and THERE IS ONE whom"! Where did you get "THERE IS ONE" from?!

Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and THERE IS ONE whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

God sets forth an example An owned slave, unable to do a thing, and (on) whom We have bestowed goodly sustenance from Us, so he spendeth thereof secretly and openly. Can they be equal? Praise be to God. Nay, (but) most of them do not know. {75} And God sets forth an example Two men, one of them is mute, unable to do a thing, while he is a burden to his guardian. Wherever he directs him, he brings no good .... {76}

kgwithnob

...You interpret "" (i.e., and whom) as "and THERE IS ONE whom"! Where did you get "THERE IS ONE" from?!...

http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9605590.msg333060;topicseen#msg333060

Peace,
Khalil

hicham9

Didn't think so either.

diamantinehoneybunch