Wife Beatgin
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Hi,
I need to know if it is really allowed to beat your wife in Islam?
there are two things, to know if it is ok to beat the wife and to know if Islam allows to beat the wife.
There is no need of any book/revelation to know that it is never ok and if Islam would allow it wouldn't make it ok either.
The doubt is the problem, there shouldn't exist the slightest doubt.I agree!
Peace!
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Joe If the reading tells us the opposite of what we feel than our interpretation is wrong.
Or it could be that our interpretation is right but our feeling is wrong. My criteria is al-furqaan and not my feeling.
If you feel you are not supposed to beat your wife based on your studies but the reading says, yes, this is rule number 3 than your feeling is wrong.
Agreed. This is submission to Allah as opposed to denying his laws.
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My current take on 434 is So good women are obedient to God, guarding in secret that which Allah has guarded(I take to mean more than sex. It may also mean disregarding their marital privacy in any way that can be done). As for those from whom you fear/experience quarrel/rebellion, advice/warn them and do not share your bed with them, and ignore them/leave them alone. Then if they obey you, seek not a way against them. Allah is ever High, Exalted, Great.
I take this meaning from several parts of the Quran, namely 995 where "faaAAridoo AAanhum" is taken to mean "let them be" or "disregard them." So, the verb is not limited to "striking" when the object is a person. Marie also came up with a great argument where "Waidriboohunna" can be translated as "leave them" when combined with "fee." This reaches the same conculsion as 995 would allow us to reach. Do correct me is I am wrong. If the verse was talking about the wife having an affair, then the laws of adultery would step in and the hisband would not have to beat her anyway.
I personally do not see any Quranic precedent for the verse to be translated as "beat." It doesn't make any sense, especially when combined with other verses that talk about marriage. When we get rid of the sequential understanding where the husband first advises her then...and then beats her, it makes even less sense. It would be translated as "if your wife is annoying, warn her, stop sleeping with her and beat her," possibly until one side gives up. -
Peace be upon you Elena,
We surely dont need any book to tell us that beating your wife, or anyone in aggression, is not the correct path. We must realize that all knowledge is within us. The God is within us. It is the very core of our being. Closer than the jugular vein. When we quiet the intellect of man, make it submit to the God's Word(universal law), then we intuit the correct response to any situation. All things in life were intuited by someone, there is always a first.
This book thats called "Quran" was not sent down as a 114 chapter writing out of the skies, or in some hidden tunnel of a cave, it was written by a human who was able to "talk to the God" as Musa did. Then this wisdom is written down and passed along.
But the main point is that this message is not "book" focused, it is LIFE focused. The Universe is the book we are reading. Its LAWS we are proclaiming.
So as Elena rightly pointed out, would we blindly follow an instruction to beat women, when we have no objective proof of how that resolves a situation and leads to peace and happiess (success), even if the book said so?
This is why we must verify all info.
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Salam idolfree,
Peace be upon you,
The word being translated as "beat" means to seperate. The last measure is seperation, not beating.
Khi- Yes i totally agree with you on this one. RK pointed to this interpretation in the heading he gave to the verse but then unfortunately Satan made him forget to translate the word "idriboohunna" to "separate regarding them(the women)" instead of "beat them". This has been doscussed by bro Edip Yuksel and even Keikhosrow Emami, who though not a real messenger but he supports RK in almsost everything EXCEPT 434. What an amazing coincidence? GOD Bless!
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peace,
with the same criteria you used to discard "beat" and find "separate"
That's an internal linguistic criteria. That same criteria could have said 'beat'. If that criteria said 'beat', should I reject it? If so, why?
not the linguistic criteria, the criteria that impelled you to search and study that part of the verse and look for another interpretation/translation.
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not the linguistic criteria, the criteria that impelled you to search and study that part of the verse and look for another interpretation/translation
I didnt have a criteria for it, back in 97, I was researching yuksel's site and i found it and it made sense. The following year 'a study of the quran' by m.a. malek confirmed the interpretation.
What if all the research i find and do leads to see it means 'beat'. Should i reject it and if i should, why?
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I have written an article on verse 434 of the Qur'an, a verse which has commonly been misinterpreted to justify violence against women. I have created a website to publish this article www.quranverse434.com