A topic for those who study Classical Arabic
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Peace,
The following sentence ??? ????? ???? ??? is found in 6145. ??? is in accusative.
My question is what does the term ??? describe? Is it the swine as a whole, or its flesh?
My reasoning is that it is describing the meat, and not pig as a whole, since ??? is the subject of the sentence.
Nadeem
Grammatically, it could be describing either word.
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For now I use SC Unipad ... while the free version has time limitations per session, it can be used indefinitely and I confirmed from their account manager and got permission to use it indefinitely as such. The good thing is, I can use it for Arabic, Urdu as well as Sindhi yes
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Mac OS X is natively arabic enabled (textedit is a good alternative but Neooffice is so powerful!) And forget about Office 2004
You can download it here http//www.neooffice.org/neojava/en/
To write arabic, just change the flag in the right corner to the green crescent, choose an arabic font (I like Baghdad and Decotype Naskh) , change the direction of the text and you can go on!
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Peace Samia,
Why is that?
Nadeem
My reply is based on the sentence you presented if taken out of context. But if we consider the whole verse, and put the sentence in its context, the word "impure" describes all the prohibited food mentioned before it, including swinemeat, so it will be for meat, not swine, because swine-meat will be considered one word a kind of meat.
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Peace Samia,
Thanks -)
If you could tell briefly about the grammar involved here, I'd be grateful.
Nadeem
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Just the sentenc
The sentence is an equational one with a subject (which is the prefixed pronoun in ; and the predicate is ). rijs is masculine singular because the subject (the pronoun) is, too. The pronoun refers to a noun which should be also ms. We have two nouns which are both ms ,so rijs could refer to either. -
Sentence in context "I do not find......anything forbidden to be eaten unless it is dead animal, blood or swine meat, as this is impure". Here, ( as this is)refers to anything forbidden. The "swine-meat" is a compound unit treated as one word since it is neither a subject in an equational sentence, nor is it followed by a direct adjective.
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Thanks Samia,
As foretold; I'm quite grateful -)
And as expected, another riddle The particle 'Inna'. From what I see, everything following the particle Inna becomes accusative (what is the Arabic term btw?), except from those words who are second members of a construct; those who are directly preceded by a preposition, and those adjectives linked to non-accusative words.
True?
And, when exactly does one use this sentence-head particle?
From what I see, they are only employed in equational sentences. True?
Nadeem
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Salaam Nadeem
You're welcome!
Accusative manSuub
inna/anna are the same particle
It is inna when not preceded by ANY thing, even a letter, untranslatable. The only word that can precede it is the verb "qaala to say", and in this case it means "that" as in (he says that..).
It is alaways followed by a noun in the accusative, known as (its noun the noun of inna). And yes, usually starts an equational sentence, but not exclusively.
or anna (also known as sister of inna), same action, but is not used at the beginning of the sentence, and usually means "that" as in (I know that ...)
What do you mean by an adjective linked to non accusative words?
An adjective conforms with the noun it describes, so it does not have a rule of its own. The rule affects only the noun being described, and the adjective follows.
Sometimes the noun of inna in an equational sentence comes at the end of the sentence when it is indefinite and the predicate is a prepositional phraseinna 3ala almaktabi kitaaban There's a book on the desk.
When a sentence starts with a pronoun, it is good style to suffix the pronoun to "inna" instead of leaving it free innahu mudarres he is a teacher (the suffixed pronoun is the "noun of inna"
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Peace Samia,
Thanks for a great lesson bravo
What do you mean by an adjective linked to non accusative words?
I can't remember.... hmm
Memory isn't what it used be anymore...Another one
According to the answer sheets is supposed to be in the genitive. I don't agree. What's the truth?
Just to check It does mean Where did you hear god's verses? - right?
Nadeem
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Salaam Nadeem
Another one
According to the answer sheets is supposed to be in the genitive. I don't agree. What's the truth?
Here is why
- is a sound feminine plural. This plural does not take the accusative sign or nunnation. So, we do not say but for both the accusative and the genetive.
You do not revise your lessons >(
Just to check It does mean Where did you hear god's verses? - right?
Yes, that's correct bravo
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This is really a good start to learn Arabic. God bless.
Today while searching for Arabic lessons I found an amazing website run by a sister who is an etymologist. You may find it interesting http//arabicgems.wordpress.com
Peace all, Hamsa
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I went through the book up to point 25. It is a good and concise one. Simple and to the point. But there are two points I would like to comment on (so far)
15 Kuwait is not masculine, Yemen is .
24 The Diptotes is not a category of proper names. Some proper names are diptotes. Proper names do not take the definite article anyway (unless it is already part of the name ), otherwise diptotes do take the definite article. When they do, (or when they are the second part of idafa construction) they take the genetive sign. Example I went to far away offices; I went to the far away offices.(plurals of the pattern mafaa3il are a category of diptotes).
I will check it from time to time and post my comments, God help me, so that you can safely take what it gives.
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Salam All,
I will share my today arabic lecture with you guys, which hopfully answer some of Nadeem questions
Any noun (م in arabic when used in a sentence is considered following
Murfoo (ع when a noun is subject
Munsoob (ب when a noun is used as an object without Harf-Jar
Majroor (ر when a noun is used after Harf-Jar or when it is Mudaf-alehi ( ِFor complete explanation and examples please see my attachment.
Now for answering following question"Peace everyone,
My book says that the above means "For the believers of the earth". However, I don't see why this couldn't also mean "For the two believers of the earth".
Can someone explain?
I don't know if anyone answer it but here is my take
is 1) because it followed by Harf-Jar (Lam/for)
2) This is alsoNow
Two Believers
BelieversSo now when a plural noun is used as a Mudaff( ) then Noon at the end of the noun is dropped when joined with the word the earth (ض in the above case
here is the answer then
For two believers of the earth
For believers of the earthNote check out the Harka on the Noon carefully which will determine Two vs plural.
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Peace sis Samia,
Would you please clarify the literal translation of the following
41Created you from one self(Nafs) and created from it/him/her its/his/her spouse
I have read all three translations and I think "Ha" refer to her or it but not him. Am I right?
Thanks, Hamsa
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Thanks sis,
one more question please
can we refer to one human being in the verse and in general.
And also can we refer to God not in any verse ofcourse but in general.
Peace, Hamsa