Mohsannat? A new understanding(very imp)
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Peace Samia
Thanks for explaining.
Ma Malakat Aymanakum(MMA) are not slaves . I have explained my understanding in this link. http//freeminds.org/forum/index.php?topic=13789.msg118187#msg118187
I wish you will contribute on the Ma Malakat Aymanakum thread as well. We miss your expert opinion there.Brothers, Siki and Tanveer will agree with me.
Does the Quran say it is necessary to pay the guardian/master to release the MMA for marriage? Quran instructs the guardian/master to give in writing for the release if requested by MMA.
24 32
Yusuf Ali Marry those among you who are single or the virtuous ones among your slaves male or female if they are in poverty Allah will give them means out of His grace for Allah encompasseth all and He knoweth all things.Wa ankihul aya_ma_ minkum was sa_lihina min iba_dikum wa ima_ikum iy yaku_nu_ fuqara_ a yugnihimul la_hu min fadlih wal la_hu wa_siun alim
A lady can marry her slave according to the verse.
I agree with you on the explanation on ?means?. It can be other than financial too.
From what I understand payment of dower is compulsory for marriage. Can the girl/woman demand the value of the dower?This is not totally relevant for this topic. But can you explain the following verse in relation to Ma Malakat Aymanakum.
33 33
Yusuf Ali To (benefit) everyone We have appointed sharers and heirs to property left by parents and relatives. To those also to whom your right hand was pledged give their due portion for truly Allah is Witness to all things.Wa likullin ja'alna_ mawa_liya mimma_ tarakal wa_lida_ni wal aqrabu_n(a), wallazina'aqadat aima_nukum fa a_tu_hum nasibahum, innalla_ha ka_na'ala_ kulli syai'in syahida_(n).
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Salam bro Sikandar,
it has been three days that you have not bothered to check or confirm an alternate meaning of a simple Arabic word "AW"
so please confirm , and confirm your final stance ,Right now I have access only to the PRL scans of Lane Lexicon (http//www.studyquran.co.uk/PRLonline.htm), and I could not find "aw" there. That is why I was asking others who might have access to relevant resources.
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Peace Siki
Siki God is saying that if somehow anyone , due to any reason , is unable to marry a mohsinnat,then God recommends marrying a young female slave rather than committing fornication" .This verse is recommending , or approving a possible alternate which God likes but does not want to enforce.
The verse referred to above uses the term Ma Malakat Aymanakum and not young female slave (aMatha in 2221 ). Your female slave is Imaaikum as in 2432. Why do you think the Quraan differentiates between female slave and MMA?
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Peace Siki
The verse referred to above uses the term Ma Malakat Aymanakum and not young female slave (aMatha in 2221 ). Your female slave is Imaaikum as in 2432. Why do you think the Quraan differentiates between female slave and MMA?
peace warner
I sincerely hope that God will steer us in the right direction.
1- Brother ! the link you posted regarding your understanding of MMA, the page is missing , could you kindly P.M. me the text if you can grab it?
2 -Brother ! due to my present understanding , i was referring to ayah 24-33 Not 24-32
24-33 And let those who do not find the means to marry keep chaste until Allah makes them free from want out of His grace. And (as for) those who ask for a writing from among those whom your right hands possess, give them the writing if you know any good in them, and give them of the wealth of Allah which He has given you; and do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, when they desire to keep chaste, in order to seek the frail good of this world's life; and whoever compels them, then surely after their compulsion Allah is Forgiving, Merciful
Your verse 24-32 uses the word "Abaadakum and AIMAMakum" about which i shall try and convey my understanding.
The word "Abaad" is consistently used in quran for the one, who OBEYS. God has used this word for his righteous servants ,like prophets in most of the verses . But this term has also been used for the servants as well ,who obey us , or follow our commands, carry out our orders etc. The people who obey are TAABAEEN", and what they do is IBBADAT" when we do IBaddat to Allah , we take it as rituals , but basically we are submitting and are following his command , and hence are "Tabaeen" to him.
Similarly any one who follows our command/instructions "is Abaad" for us, and what i understand "Our Servants" (not slaves) fall into this category.
When we say ABAAD , it is a generic term used, both for Male and Female, but to differentiate between the two, the word AMMTA, is used for female servant.
I searched this word ,and i could find only two verses 2-221and 24-32(AMMAekum) , where you are likely to misunderstand them as female slaves. (a lot of translators have done so) But taking it as a "female servant" is more appropriate because in both ayats they are linked with ABAAD" and i am quite certain that "ABBAD" is a servant (like what we have these days) who work for us , NOT a salve.(i checked all the occurrences of ABAAD)3 - I agree with you regarding " a "Written Deed " "to set these people(MMA) free.
4 - Addionally one more word is being translated as servants in Quran, "GHILMAN" , which God is describing in Quran as some pure specie , which at this time we have no knowledge about . What constitutes under that definition, only God knows what he commits to "Saleheen's" service in paradise .
learning must go on
peace
sikandar
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Peace Sikandar, Warner, all,
According to Lane Lexicon, "imaa" means female slaves, not servants, and "3ibaad" can mean male servants or male slaves (both servants and slaves obey). Thus according to context, 2432 is referring to male and female SLAVES and not servants ("imaaikum" can only mean female slaves and thus "3ibaadikum" in 2432 can only mean male slaves). In other places in al-qur'aan, however, "3bad" means servant also, depending on the context.
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Peace Sikandar, Warner, all,
According to Lane Lexicon, "imaa" means female slaves, not servants, and "3ibaad" can mean male servants or male slaves (both servants and slaves obey). Thus according to context, 2432 is referring to male and female SLAVES and not servants ("imaaikum" can only mean female slaves and thus "3ibaadikum" in 2432 can only mean male slaves). In other places in al-qur'aan, however, "3bad" means servant also, depending on the context.
Peace Tanveer
We must understand , that a slave is a servant rather a little more than servant , But a servant is not a Slave. As God has used ABAAD for his servants most of the time,so it is up to you weather you call "Suleheen" , Prophets and Messengers as his slaves instead of servants,
Come on friend ! Try and visualize the subtle difference between the two.
As i said , that AMTaa is attached with Abadd when ever God wants to differentiate, female servant, from the general word "ABAAD".
i think you can very well understand the words . TAABAEEN, TAABEE, ibAADA, ibADAT,etc , we use them in Urdu , please verify its usage from Quran , and tell me weather it gives an impression of BEING A SLAVE ANY WHERE IN QURAN? other than the places where you are trying to take the benefit of doubt. what you are doing is ,"If X are 2 in no, and Y's are 90, when mixed,would or should make it an X , where as when two are mixed it should be overwhelmingly "Y" There are all the chance for 2 to be a wrong , but a repetition of 90 cannot be a mistake".
Lets not blindly follow what is written in lane. As Brother Yasin said , and i fully concur with him, THAT QURAN IS ITS OWN DICTIONARY. And Brother ! i rely on it the most with the help of common sense,,
PEACE
sikandar
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Peace everyone
Peace Siki , Tanveer
What comes to my mind when we say servant is someone who works for a pay/salary, more like an employee, and slave is someone bought for a price and therefore bonded.
As far as I know the paid employee (servant) category is not identified in the Quraan. But we see freeing of a neck/slave (rukaba) mentioned in the Quran. So do you think we can define slave as someone completely bound to a master without freedom.
I guess Tabieen means ?follower? and maybe to mean ?dependent?. But is this term used in relation to servant or slave in the Quran ?
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Peace Siki
24 32
Marry those among you who are single or the virtuous ones among your slaves male or female if they are in poverty Allah will give them means out of His grace for Allah encompasseth all and He knoweth all things.Wa ankihul aya_ma_ minkum was sa_lihina min iba_dikum wa ima_ikum iy yaku_nu_ fuqara_ a yugnihimul la_hu min fadlih wal la_hu wa_siun alim
24 33
Let those who find not the wherewithal for marriage keep themselves chaste until Allah gives them means out of His grace. And if any of your MMA ask for a deed in writing (to enable them to earn their freedom for a certain sum) give them such a deed if ye know any good in them; yea give them something yourselves out of the means which Allah has given to you. But force not your maids to prostitution when they desire chastity in order that ye may make a gain in the goods of this life. But if anyone compels them yet after such compulsion is Allah Oft-Forgiving Most Merciful (to them).Wal yastafifil lazina la_ yajidu_na nika_han hat ta_ yugniyahumul la_hu min fadlih wal lazina yabtagu_nal kita_ba mim ma_ malakat aima_nukum faka_tibu_hum in alimtum fihim hairaw wa a_tu_hum min ma_lil la_hil lazi a_ta_kum wa la_ tukrihu_ fataya_tikum alal biga_i in aradna tahas sunal litabtagu_ aradal haya_tid dun ya_ wa may yukrih huna fa in nal la_ha mim badi ikra_hin na gafu_rur rahim
There is no dispute with regard to your earlier post other than there is no mention of Mohsinat in verses 2432 or 2433. But I guess the ?single? for ayyaama in 2432 should be ?Widows? instead of single in the above Y Alis translation. Although I have seen this only in one dictionary I guess Tanveer will be in a better position to clarify.
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peace warner
Taabaeen " is used in 24-31 for servants , in addition to MMA , when women are being addressed to take care of their dress code .
As for translations of 24-32 and 33 , it is been up to the translator , how he perceives the words,i have seen translators translating MMA as servants and Abaad as slave , and exactly opposite as well.
I guess three of us here are in a better position to sort out this matter , i don't think those people had the tools , or time to dig deep into the spirit of just one,or two words,,so let's purify it.
i am utterly disappointed with these people and would never trust any of them , until and unless i read Arabic and compare at least 8 of them,and even then i would recommend using a combination of the ultimate dictionary (the quran itself) and ones own judgment. As for Fatayat,
The only two occurrences are consistent with MMA in the same verse , so if we take MMA to be All the slaves,then it is more plausible that these are young female slave girls,whom God is recommending as an alternate for marriage. Moreover God commanding Masters not to force these girls in to prostitution is nearer to reality rather than "parent protected young girls theory,as there would be very remote chances for a father to force his little girl or niece into such a thing . Last ,but not the least ,
All mighty reducing the punishment for these (Fatayat)makes perfect sense.sikandar
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Peace Warner, Sikandar, all,
According to Lane Lexicon, "ayama" means persons (irrespective of gender) who do not have a spouse, and can be both never married or married before. Thus it would include never married, divorced, and widowed, and all these categories are single. Hence I think that it should be translated as "single" in 2432.
In addition to that, I think it should be "marry off" and not "marry" in 2432, but Samia can give a better opinion on what it should be according to Classical Arabic grammar in that particular verse.
"Ma malakat aymanukum" could be from "mohsanat" (424), or from "fatayat" (425), thus the term does not refer only to "slave girls". It refers to those whom you commit to by oath (when you possess someone you commit to them to fulfill your responsibilities towards them), and they could be both from "mohsanat" or "fatayat". In case of "mohsanat", it would refer to those "mohsanat" whom you commit to/possess by oath, and in case of "fatayat", it would refer to those "fatayat" whom you commit to/possess by oath.
In my understanding, "fatayat" means "parent/guardian protected/dependent" as it has been used in contrast with "mohsanat"/self-protected in 425. The mohsanat protect their chastity themselves, either while being free/independent or by getting married or by entering into an oath with someone. The fatayat are dependent on someone else for protection of their chastity, either on parents in case of biological children that are still dependent on them, or on guardian in case of adopted children that are still dependent OR SLAVES.
According to Lane Lexicon, "fatayat" means "young women, concealed, or kept within, or behind the curtain, in the house or tent", which implies parent/family protected, and also means "female slaves", who would be guardian/master protected/dependent. Thus "fatayat" includes both female slaves and young women still dependent on their parents/family/guardians, and both meanings fit in 425. The MMA from the fatayat would be those dependent young women OR female slaves, with whom one has made an oath to possess them/commit to them, which in context of 425 would be oath to marry them.
"Bigha" means to "seek to exceed the legal limits"/"prostitution and CANNOT mean marriage. Thus in 2433, we are being asked not to force our fatayat into prostitution. I therefore agree that "fatayat" in 2433 can mean "female slaves", but it can still mean "young parent/family dependent girls" also because there are instances in corrupt societies where fathers/older relatives have forced their female family members, including daughters, into prostitution.
The "slave" meaning, however, does not apply nowadays because al-qur'aan does not give us any laws about enslaving people, so hopefully in the last 1400 years, all the slaves should have been liberated by now !
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Peace brother Tanveer,
According to Lane Lexicon, "fatayat" means "young women, concealed, or kept within, or behind the curtain, in the house or tent", which implies parent/family protected, and also means "female slaves", who would be guardian/master protected/dependent. Thus "fatayat" includes both female slaves and young women still dependent on their parents/family/guardians, and both meanings fit in 425.
I don't see the meaning of slaves here. The plural word "fatayat" (singular "fatat" simply means young females.
"Bigha" means to "seek to exceed the legal limits"/"prostitution and CANNOT mean marriage.
Please see all the occurrences of the word "BGhY" and its derivatives in the great reading. Prostitution is NEVER one of the meanings. So why is that meaning coming out of nowhere here?
I don't think that it is a coincidence that like "ma malakat aymanukum", it seems like this subject is full of forced meanings that encourage the exploitation of women.
Peace,
Ayman
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Peace bro Ayman,
I don't see the meaning of slaves here. The plural word "fatayat" (singular "fatat" simply means young females.
The implication of my post was that even if it can mean "female slaves" according to Classical Arabic dictionary in 425, it would not be applicable nowadays because there is no process described in al-qur'aan of enslaving people. There were some slaves at the time of revelation of al-qur'aan in the elite, as per your own admission, and AT THAT TIME the "female slave" meaning of "fatayat" would have been applicable to that situation.
Please see all the occurrences of the word "BGhY" and its derivatives in the great reading. Prostitution is NEVER one of the meanings. So why is that meaning coming out of nowhere here?
Can you please tell us what "bighaa" means in 2433 ? It cannot mean marriage as "marriage" is not "seeking to exceed lawful limits", but would actually be opposite of "bighaa" because it is remaining within lawful limits.
Peace
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Peace brother Tanveer,
The implication of my post was that even if it can mean "female slaves" according to Classical Arabic dictionary in 425, it would not be applicable nowadays because there is no process described in al-qur'aan of enslaving people. There were some slaves at the time of revelation of al-qur'aan in the elite, as per your own admission, and AT THAT TIME the "female slave" meaning of "fatayat" would have been applicable to that situation.
My point is that it CANNOT mean slaves. For example, the people of the cave in chapter 18 are described as "fityat" (masculine equivalent of "fatayat" not because they can be slaves but because they were young men.
Can you please tell us what "bighaa" means in 2433 ? It cannot mean marriage as "marriage" is not "seeking to exceed lawful limits", but would actually be opposite of "bighaa" because it is remaining within lawful limits.
The law on marriage is that it should be consentual and not a forced marriage. Hence, a forced marriage indeed falls under "seeking to exceed the lawful limits".
Peace,
Ayman
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Peace bro Ayman,
Thank you for your analysis. I agree with your point about "forced marriage", and your point about "fatayat" only meaning "young girls" makes sense according to usage in al-qur'aan.
I have two questions
Firstly, what would be the rules of marriage to the slaves then, according to al-qur'aan, at the time of its revelation, because there were a small minority of slaves at that time as evident from verses that tell us to free slaves as a recompense.
Secondly, does the preposition "aw" allow the meaning of "that is" as per its usage in al-qur'aan ?
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Peace brother Tanveer,
Firstly, what would be the rules of marriage to the slaves then, according to al-qur'aan, at the time of its revelation, because there were a small minority of slaves at that time as evident from verses that tell us to free slaves as a recompense.
Brother, there are plenty of passages in the great reading that speak against injustice ("thulm" in any shape or form. Do you think that there is any justice in slavery? Isn't this like stealing the fruits of the work of someone? If this someone is also an orphan isn't this stealing from the orphans?
Clearly there is no issue of "marriage to slaves" in the first place because slavery is an injustice for which there is absolutely no place amongst those who are forethoughtful.
Secondly, does the preposition "aw" allow the meaning of "that is" as per its usage in al-qur'aan ?
Brother, I am not sure I understand your question. Please put it in context. As far as I know, "aw" means "or".
Peace,
Ayman
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peace ayman, tanveer.
Brother ayman is right about Fatayat as YOUNG GIRLS, but in 4-24 , the word is fatayat out of MMA , that is why i consider it to be a slave girl.(because i take the MMA as slaves)
In the 24-33 where "bigha" is being used, i would tend to agree with brother Tanveer, he has a definition, which is more refined , and i think that can apply in both situations , But as the primary subject in ayah is MMA, and also ,the chance of " Bigha" taking place with Fatayat of MMA is much more likely. So we could say,,,
" Here in this ayah, stress is primarily for Fatayat of MMA but the divine wisdom covered the other option as well by using the Appropriate words".
peace
sikandar
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Salaam all
Thanks warner for bringing out this verse
24 32
Marry those among you who are single or the virtuous ones among your slaves male or female if they are in poverty Allah will give them means out of His grace for Allah encompasseth all and He knoweth all things.It shows the reply of God in case of poverty,which is completely different from "go and marry the slaves if you can't afford to pay the dowery of mu7sanat"!
Therefore,in verse 425, the affordability is anything BUT financial. So, what else would make someone unable to marry?
Also think of verse 244 what would "mu7sanat" mean? Remember, every woman/man is innocent untill there are four witnesses.What woman/man would not be affected by accusation, and thus do not form part of mu7sans?
I think if we can answer these two questions, we may be able to understand these two problematic terms. They are in fact in opposition.
Brother Tanweer
The verb "naka7a" in the affirmative command would mean "marry off" only if it is followed by explicit masculin. In verse 2432, it would mean (marry the females and marry off the males), as I explained that Arabic usage is the opposite of English usage.
To those who might wonder why I mentioned only the affirmative command, the reason is that "yunki7" means marry off and "yanki7" means marry, in the imperfect tense. But both verbs have the same form in the affirmative command (anki7). As for the negative command, it is simply the imperfect (present tense) preceded by "la"=don't la tunki7 and la tanki7.
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Peace bro Sikandar,
Brother ayman is right about Fatayat as YOUNG GIRLS, but in 4-24 , the word is fatayat out of MMA , that is why i consider it to be a slave girl.(because i take the MMA as slaves)
I think you need to correct this basic misunderstanding that is causing some conceptual problems for you in my opinion. Firstly, it is 425 and not 424 where fatayat are mentioned. Secondly, it is NOT fatayat out of MMA, but the other way around MMA FROM FATAYAT.
Look at the Arabic of 425 "ma malakat aymanukum MIN fatayatikum" i.e. MMA FROM FATAYAT. Thus in this verse MMA is the subset of fatayat.
That is why MMA CANNOT mean slaves because in 424 MMA being mentioned is the subset of mohsanat. MMA is simply those whom you possess by oath and what kind of oath and what kind of people being referred to depends on the context. That is why your line diagram is wrong. The arrow should be from fatayat to MMA and not from MMA to fatayat as you have drawn.
Peace,
Tanveer
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Salaam warner
Thank you for inviting me to participate in the thread of "mamalakat aymanukum". To me, both terms (MMA and Mu7sanat) are linked by opposition, so I would discuss both on the same thread (in this case this one), or even only one, and the other will be solved when we reach an agreement on either.
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Salaam brother siki
In verse 425
And whoever cannot marry the (mu7sanat), marry (MMA).....marry them with the permission of their family/folk..
According to you, the command is to marry YOUR slave (MMA), not someone else's. There is no mention of masters here. The Quraan uses the word (ahl) which is family, clan...but not masters. If God speaks of slaves, why not mention their masters?