Peace,
I see, 337 does mention this, therefore on that basis are you suggesting that 3340 does not indicate that Muhammed was the last prophet? I understand that if the 'seal' is substituted for 'official mark' then Muhammed can theoretically be a universal representation of those who have played similar roles before.
Could such an important matter boil down to just the meaning of one word in this verse? Or was this 'end of prophethood' an innovation because there isn't enough to support this change? Or are we not reading correctly?! Obviously many translators are certain about this verse and the language of the Quran is very specific and clear.
Does the flexibilities of translation allow for an even wider meaning for various important words including this one, which shape important ideas and concepts in the minds of readers and students?
Masoom
It does seem simple;
If they were saying he has a step son, then to marry the step sons wife- allowed, but people will talk, so to clarify further his office is declared to everybody, to stop the talk of the town and to allow such a thing in the future -if the need be.
4034 (YA) "And to you there came joseph in times gone by, with Clear Signs, but ye ceased not to doubt of the (Mission) for which he had come At length, when he died, ye said 'No apostle will Allah send after him.' thus doth Allah leave to stray such as transgress and live in doubt,-
peace