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  4. Does Islam allow homosexuality?

Does Islam allow homosexuality?

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  • I Offline
    I Offline
    Islamo-Aleikum
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    Dr. Ghali

    "And as for the youth, then his parents (Literally his two fathers) were believers; so we were apprehensive he would oppress them with (his) in ordinance and disbelief."

    Abuah is Arabic for "fathers," a person don't use this word unless it means that both of the parents to a child are male, indicating a homosexual parenting. It should also be said that Prophet Khidr killed the two homosexual fathers' son because he was a criminal and disbeliever, he feared he would oppress his fathers, most likely due to their homosexuality and monotheism.

    We know that God accepts homosexuals as believers, this verse is proof of it.

    The Mosaic law abrogates the law of Lot. Moses came at least a millennium after Lot. Therefore, homosexuality is not a sin, it's very clear by this verse that homosexuality is accepted by God and is compatible to Islam.

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    • M Offline
      M Offline
      Mussabahire
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      I do not know arabic. Try to become one and see if there is no problem in your rectum!

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      • I Offline
        I Offline
        Islamo-Aleikum
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        I do not know arabic. Try to become one and see if there is no problem in your rectum!

        No thanks, anal sex should be a sin, but perhaps oral sex with a man; I will try it.

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        • N Offline
          N Offline
          N00B
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          Dr. Ghali

          "And as for the youth, then his parents (Literally his two fathers) were believers; so we were apprehensive he would oppress them with (his) in ordinance and disbelief."

          Abuah is Arabic for "fathers," a person don't use this word unless it means that both of the parents to a child are male, indicating a homosexual parenting. It should also be said that Prophet Khidr killed the two homosexual fathers' son because he was a criminal and disbeliever, he feared he would oppress his fathers, most likely due to their homosexuality and monotheism.

          We know that God accepts homosexuals as believers, this verse is proof of it.

          The Mosaic law abrogates the law of Lot. Moses came at least a millennium after Lot. Therefore, homosexuality is not a sin, its very clear by this verse that homosexuality is accepted by God and is compatible to Islam.

          According to your study, what is the context of the verse 1880?

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          • M Offline
            M Offline
            Man_of_Faith
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Spiritually wrong or not with homosexuality, one has to have patience with the people who are like that.

            It is against the anatomical design to be homosexual in the flesh. It is not productive.

            The one who is overly instinctive has missed the essence of their life.

            But the most important part is behavior and deeds in our lives.

            Salaam

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            • WakasW Offline
              WakasW Offline
              Wakas
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              1880 uses a dual masculine, which to my knowledge, can mean male+male or male+female
              http//corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?q=Abw#(18804)
              It is also used elsewhere in Quran.

              Please provide evidence to the contrary.

              All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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              • I Offline
                I Offline
                Islamo-Aleikum
                wrote on last edited by
                #7

                Abuwahu is only used twice in the Quran, once in 411 and in 1880.

                While in 411, Abuwahu seemingly is used as a male-female.

                The word in 1880, Abuwahu is most likely used as a male-male.

                Every word in the Quran is used with much thought, Abuwahu gives a disputed definition in 1880 than it does in 411, it makes sense it refers to two males.

                Once again, the point stands. 1880 refers to two male parents.

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                • I Offline
                  I Offline
                  Islamo-Aleikum
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #8

                  According to your study, what is the context of the verse 1880?

                  Khidr kills a son who is a criminal, the son had in his intentions to oppress his fathers' homosexual relationship and belief in the One God.

                  He killed him, in hope for God will give the two men a new son to adopt.

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                  • H Offline
                    H Offline
                    hicham9
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #9

                    ...

                    416

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                    • H Offline
                      H Offline
                      huruf
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #10

                      No homosexual relation can result in a child being conceived. Therefore the fact that a dual for a parent is used can only mean mmale female. If we were dealing with a wider meaning of the word ab beyond the biological ascendancy then fine, but no indication that for that anybody needs to engage with sexual relationship of any kind whatsoever. It would be a non biological relationship. Who cares for the sexualcomings and goings of anybody. We caninject asmany novels as we like into the event, but the Qur'an says absolute nothing, we are on our own on that count.

                      Salaam

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                      • I Offline
                        I Offline
                        Islamo-Aleikum
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #11

                        No homosexual relation can result in a child being conceived. Therefore the fact that a dual for a parent is used can only mean mmale female. If we were dealing with a wider meaning of the word ab beyond the biological ascendancy then fine, but no indication that for that anybody needs to engage with sexual relationship of any kind whatsoever. It would be a non biological relationship. Who cares for the sexualcomings and goings of anybody. We caninject asmany novels as we like into the event, but the Qur'an says absolute nothing, we are on our own on that count.

                        Salaam

                        Children can be adopted, too. Does it say the son was biological? No, reason can quickly give insight to this is in reference to an adopted child. The word used is not dual for a parent, but a masculine dual, meaning the term is indicating male, but does not restrict to it.

                        The fact that Quran has such a beautiful linguistic structure and the term in question is only used twice. It makes perfect sense that first time, it is used in context of dual parents - male and female - while the second time, it is used in its masculine form - male and male.

                        That's the linguistic beauty of Quran, the words are not used in absolute random forms, but chosen carefully.

                        God chose this form of saying "parents," in this context, where little is to indicate it is about dual parenting.

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                        • WakasW Offline
                          WakasW Offline
                          Wakas
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #12

                          peace all,

                          Note the illogical and baseless deduction (highlighted)

                          Abuwahu is only used twice in the Quran, once in 411 and in 1880.

                          While in 411, Abuwahu seemingly is used as a male-female.

                          The word in 1880, Abuwahu is most likely used as a male-male.

                          Every word in the Quran is used with much thought, Abuwahu gives a disputed definition in 1880 than it does in 411, it makes sense it refers to two males.

                          Once again, the point stands. 1880 refers to two male parents.

                          Perhaps you mean to say "It could refer to either, I think it's male-male"

                          In other words your baseless personal opinion.

                          All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                          • I Offline
                            I Offline
                            Islamo-Aleikum
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #13

                            peace all,

                            Note the illogical and baseless deduction (highlighted)

                            Perhaps you mean to say "It could refer to either, I think it's male-male"

                            In other words your baseless personal opinion.

                            Please give me your evidence for your claim, since you think it is a fact other than the mere conjecture your claim truly is.

                            I repeat, the Quran wouldn't have used a masculine (albeit dual, but dual form is infrequent in use) form with a vague definition for no reason, there is always a reason for the linguistics of the Quran with rhythm, would you say the choice of words in the Quran is random and with no depth? Ludicrous.

                            First time used as a dual form. Second time used as a male form, it makes perfect sense. Just like the word "dahaha" in the Quran has a dual meaning, a flat and a sphere (a linguistic perfection of the Quran, it never misuse its words randomly, it uses them with wisdom and care, gives them duality because it contains more depth than a superficial synonym) - without question you would choose the sphere form of the word because it fits to your tastes, but not the male form of the masculine dual form of 'parents' because you are an adherent of homophobia, I surmise.

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                            • J Offline
                              J Offline
                              JavaLatte
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #14

                              Thanks for your contribution in this issue, brother Wakas. May Allah bless you.

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                              • Y Offline
                                Y Offline
                                yellowdog8272
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #15

                                Well if it does or doesn't should we care? It should still be allowed to co-exist as this is what ethics and morals say. I believe that homosexuals have the every right to become Muslim just like anybody else. Islam is a religion which anybody could convert to regardless of ethnicity, gender and sexuality. Now I was born in a country were homosexuals have equal rights(Indeed Sweden is a very amazing tolerant country) and there are some who are even Imams too. I remember reading on the news that there was a homosexual Imam that wanted to start his own mosque and he has the every right to do so. Homosexuality is no threat to Islam. I will tell you what is actually a threat to Islam it's those 'Muslim' extremist imbeciles like Anjem Choudary. Absolute garbage.

                                Anyway my point is that religion should not be used on what is allowed or not. Sure you can discuss what is allowed and what is not allowed in Islam but religion has no right to say what is allowed or not in a country. Regardless whether homosexuality is allowed in Islam or not the people need to modernize the religion. If any religion is a true religion then it should not call the death on homosexuals because homosexuality is no crime and infact it should allow homosexuality to co-exist. People need to abandon their conservative view on homosexuality and start accepting reality. As a heterosexual I have nothing against homosexuals infact I believe in their right to do whatever they want as long as it does not harm anybody else.

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                                • S Offline
                                  S Offline
                                  SarahY
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #16

                                  Salam,

                                  I agree with huruf even if the child was adopted read Quran verses 334-5.

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                                  • H Offline
                                    H Offline
                                    Hizbullah
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #17

                                    Dr. Ghali

                                    "And as for the youth, then his parents (Literally his two fathers) were believers; so we were apprehensive he would oppress them with (his) in ordinance and disbelief."

                                    Abuah is Arabic for "fathers," a person don't use this word unless it means that both of the parents to a child are male, indicating a homosexual parenting. It should also be said that Prophet Khidr killed the two homosexual fathers' son because he was a criminal and disbeliever, he feared he would oppress his fathers, most likely due to their homosexuality and monotheism.

                                    We know that God accepts homosexuals as believers, this verse is proof of it.

                                    The Mosaic law abrogates the law of Lot. Moses came at least a millennium after Lot. Therefore, homosexuality is not a sin, it's very clear by this verse that homosexuality is accepted by God and is compatible to Islam.

                                    Than why ALLAH destroyed the people of Lut?

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                                    • M Offline
                                      M Offline
                                      Man_of_Faith
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #18

                                      The community of Lut was destroyed for more than mere homosexuality. It kidnapped, robbed and abused people.

                                      Salaam

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                                      • I Offline
                                        I Offline
                                        Islamo-Aleikum
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #19

                                        Than why ALLAH destroyed the people of Lut?

                                        That was a thousand years before Moses became a Prophet and they were destroyed because they were bad people, not because they were homosexuals (if they were).

                                        Prophet David was a homosexual as a further proof after Moses, meaning the homosexuality law was abrogated by the later Prophets.

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                                        • H Offline
                                          H Offline
                                          huruf
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #20

                                          Apart from what SaraY says which is right,

                                          Either it is a biological child either it is not. If it is a biological child it must be female and male, if it is not, it does not matter at all that the two parents engage in sexual relations or do not engage in sexual relations, it would be adopted and to adopt a child you do not need to have sexual relations with anybody whatsoever.

                                          Salaam

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