A topic for those who study Classical Arabic
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Thanks sis for both replies. Why must walad have a definite article?
Since Arabic does not use the verb (to be0 in the present, the language makes use of the definite article to differentiate between the relation between to consecutive nouns
This is a boy
This boyThe boy is inteligent
The inteligent boysister of the (paternal) uncle
Uncle (paternal) of the sister -
If there was a preposition like fee at the beginning, would it be al-waladu or al-waladi? Does the pronoun interfere?
As " with this boy "?
Yes, the preposition works across the demonstartive pronoun ma3a haathal waladi. The pronoun does not shield the noun from the preposition.
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Shukran!
"Qad j?'a rusulun minkum da'awn? 'il? ll?hi"
The book says that this means "There came from among you apostles who summoned us to God."
But I don't understand why "da'awn?" stands for "summoned us". Doesn't "da'awn?" mean "we summoned"? Does it mean both?
Nadeem
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Peace Samia, all,
The sentence "Wajada kullu Al-Fuqara'i" means "He found all of the poor men". However, could it not also mean "All of the poor men found"?
How do I tell which one?
Nadeem
Salaam Nadeem, all
The sentence you wrote means "all the poor men found...".
"He found all the poor men" will have " kulla..." and not "kullu"And I would just say "the poor", not the "poor men", unless it is specifically men from the context -)
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The is where literal translation approach fails.
Zalika is a very rich word. The Za, La and Ka are all ingredients. Simply put the Zalika implies distance and should never mean "this" which is used for the something near.
22 should be translated "Such is the book" which leaves the meaning somewhat open like in the arabic.
Such a translation would draw attention to the initials in 21 and we don't want that do we.
Lanes has a good section on this vol3 files 113/114.