Questions/Comments on the Quran

Verb qatele means "to part" or better "to disjoin" something which is joined. If it's about body and soul then qatele means death or causing death (when it's form II verb), so it's "to kill" in this case. In the Qur'an it's used as "to disjoin" in many occurrences and is wrongly understood as "to kill", as, for example, in aayaat with "killing kids", which is leaving (disjoining) them. There's a noun "nefs", which is from where intentions come; in case of humans it's what we call soul, but in general it's character. Allah has His Nefs also. Plural of nefs is nufoos as in 1725 for example. Enfus is a collective noun from the same root, and this word form (weight) can be used as singular, dual and plural, as, for example, ešhur. Enfus means self (selves), it's not same as nefs. These people done Zulm to themselves (enfusu-hum) by taking to themselves (reflexive form VIII verb is used) el-'ijl (corpus). They were called first to repent to their Baari', and also to disjoin ("kill&quot themselves. By taking el-'ijl they joined with it, as it was said in 293 that their quloob (hearts, minds) absorbed el-'ijl. Calling them to disjoin themselves is not to make suicide, but to disjoin el-'ijl their quloob absorbed from themselves.

Ikhtilāf اخْتِلَاف is a verbal noun in form VIII. This form is reflexive of basic form, so it's about subject's doing something to itself. Basic meaning of this root is "to stay/be behind" and it can be manifested in many ways, as it can talk about survivors, about representatives of somebody, about retreat, and so on. Ikhtilāf thus can talk about something was in some state before and it changed itself, in many ways. For example, we can change our views on something and that would be our ikhtilāf. This is normal and expected for us, because only some crazy people will claim that they're always right. By Allah's choosing word ikhtilāf we were told not just about that there's no contradictions in the Qur'an, but also that Allah's not changing His Mind, as humans normally can. This can also be a proof that there's no abrogation in the Qur'an.

Peace kaamil. Each country at the present time has its pwn jurisdiction and laws. They will enforce their justice or injustice according to the trial s evidence. Say they go with your evidence,they will apply their law not Qoran- This aside, you yourself want to follow GOD s law in Qoran. this will then have to run parallel with the human system. Compare the verdict that was established by the human system and if you feel you need to correct the situation, then you are entitled to put your side to the court through the defence. If the victim s side have accepted the verdict , they get their compensation/justice that side is fine, there will be no need to fast. However your repentance to GOD will then become a private matter. If you still want to fast and you are healthy and able it is two consecutive months. Once the fast starts, It is then what you can do/are able to do according to your health and circumstance.GOD is fully aware of all the intentions . This is my take.. GOD bless you. Peace.

I think that the root k-b-r is best to translate understood from English "gross". It can describe something big, huge and also some be opposite of "net amount". Thus, especially causative verb forms (II and V) can be used to describe somebody/something from whom nothing is deducted or can't be deducted, its net value is same as gross value. In relation to Allah, this would mean that nothing can be taken from Him because He didn't add anything out of Himself. For example, if we put some goods in some container it will have its new gross mass, which is its net mass + mass of the container.

Is it true that Allah is God ? Facts لا إله إلا الله La Illah Ila Allah There is no god but Allah Sura 112 The "definition provision for Allah" in the Qur'an قُلْ هُوَ اللَّهُ أَحَدٌ اللَّهُ الصَّمَدُ لَمْ يَلِدْ وَلَمْ يُولَدْ وَلَمْ يَكُن لَّهُ كُفُوًا أَحَدٌ Say, "He is Allah, One Allah, the Eternal Refuge He neither begets nor is born Nor is there to Him any equivalent" (112) Logical Argument Premise 1 There are many (equivalent concept of) gods worshiped by human beings. Premise 2 Sura 112 said Allah is One and not equivalent to god(s). Argument Therefore, Allah is . . . ? (a) God; or (b) not God Sura 112 isn't saying that Allah is One, but He is Allah, One, so He is One.

Kephal in Greek means "head". I always refer to Bible if found Qur'an mention person name. For Dzul Kifli, I think nowhere on the Bible. Kephale which mentioned on Greek version of Bible is greek word for Head as you mention, but no refer to any special person. Btw, I am from Indonesia, in Bahasa the english word of Head is also Kepala, it is from Hindu Sanskrit because before Islam Indonesia religion is Hindu. And it is interesting argument to be discussed that the Greek Mythology and Monotheist Religion was come from Hindu. I will show some findings from "The Bible in India" book by Louis Jacolliot that many Greek Mythology similar with Hindu Hercules. — In Sanscrit, Hara-kala hero of battles— an epithet commonly given to Siva, God of battles and of Hindoo poetry. Theseus. — In Sanscrit, Tha-saha, the associate, companion of Siva. AEacus. — A Judge in Hell, in Greek mythology; in Sanscrit, Aha-ka a severe judge, adjective of qualification, ordinarily attached to the name of Yama — the Hindoo Judge of Hell. Ariadne. — The unhappy princess abandoned by Theseus, and who had committed the fault of giving herself up to the enemy of her family. ln Sanscrit, Ari-ana— seduced by an enemy. RhaDamanthus. — Another Judgein Hell, in mythology; in Sanscrit,Radha-manta — who chastises crime. Andromeda. — Sacrificed to Neptune, and succored by Perseus. In Sanscrit, Andha-ra-medha — sacrificed to the passion of the Water God. Persius. — In Sanscrit, Para-saha— timely succor, Centaur - Mythologic, half man, half horse. In Sanscrit, Ken-tiira -Man-horse. and many more you can find in the book. Also Abraham and Sarah (his wife) similar with Brahma and Saras-vati (Brahma wife). I see that Qur'an talks only about events (and people living) in Middle East and Egypt. Agree, but to be more specific Ayat Makkiyyah (Makkah revelation) talk about Egypt (Mishr), Syria/Lebanon, and Petra/Nabataean Kingdom Hijaz (recently Makkah) and Yaman never mention. Btw, I still find facts about Sheeba which mention in Makkah Revelation, probably it is not in Yaman, but if actually in Yaman maybe because it is related with Solomon (Jerusalem). Petra is mentioned as er-Raqeem in surah Kehf. Jordanians removed inscription Raqeem at the entrance of Petra some 50 years ago. I have already had few books about Petra, this year plan to go there but God give me Liposarcoma cancer, so I postpone until my health back.

Perhaps best to peruse older texts if available and check for consistency in transcription. peace specific in general to interior (belly) of people 410 ان indeed الذىن the ones ىاكلون eating امول wealth الىتمى the orphans ظلما wrong of (injustice) انما solely ىاكلون eating فى in بطونهم buṭūnihim/interior (belly) theirs (pl.) نارا fire of وسىصلون and shall burning سعىرا blaze of even more specific to interior (belly) milk producing organs of cattle 1666 وان and indeed لكم for you فى in الانعم the cattle لعبره surely lesson نسقىكم we give drink you (pl.) مما from what فى in بطونه buṭūnihi/interior (belly) its (m) من from بىن between فرث bowels ودم and blood لبنا milk of خالصا pure of ساىغا pleasant of للشربىن to the drinkers specific in general to interior (belly) of bees 1669 ثم furthermore كلى eat من of كل each الثمرت the fruits فاسلكى so follows سبل paths ربك lord your ذللا smooth of ىخرج evicted من from بطونها buṭūnihā/interior (belly) theirs (f) شرب drink مختلف diverse الانه the colors/qualities its فىه in it شفا cure of للناس for the people ان indeed فى in ذلك such لاىه surely sign لقوم for folk ىتفكرون reflecting specific in general to interior belly of cattle 2321 وان and indeed لكم for you فى in الانعم the cattle لعبره surely lesson نسقىكم we give drink you مما from what فى in بطونها buṭūnihā/interior (belly) theirs (f) ولكم and for you فىها therein منفع benefit كثىره many its ومنها and from them (f) تاكلون thou eating British Library’s oldest Qur’an manuscript Or.2165, dating (701 to 800 CE) https//i.postimg.cc/815Q997M/ch16v65-75.jpg Birmingham Qur'an 568-645 CE https//i.postimg.cc/fWZfVnnr/ch23v12-27.jpg https//corpuscoranicum.de/en/verse-navigator/sura/23/verse/21/manuscripts

I found the following answer on the net. I am posting it for the benefit for others. I found it very useful. "What you're describing Is a actually called "اسم الجنس الجمعى" (Collective Generic Noun), not "اسم الجمع" (Collective Noun), so, what's the difference ? A collective noun is a word that describes a plural that doesn't have a singular variation, for example, the word "نساء" means "women", you can't get a singular variation from this word, for a singular woman we use the word "امرأة" which is a completely different word, so the word "نساء" actually have no singular, same with "إبل" "camels", again, no singular form, a singular camel is "جمل". The Collective Generic Noun (CGN) is a word that describes a plural, which gets its singular variation by adding the letter "ة" at the end of it, like the examples you gave "تين - تينة" "سمك-سمكة" and so on. So now, what's the difference between a CGN and a normal plural ? Generic nouns don't describe multiple objects, they describe the "kind" of object, for example سمكة - singular - a fish سمكات \ أسماك - plural - fishes (multiple) سمك - CGN - fish (in general) So the CGN is used when you mean the kind of thing, "I like fish أحب السمك" , but the normal plural is used when you mean a certain number or amount of the thing "I ate 4 fishes أكلت 4 سمكات", you can't describe a CGN with a numerical value ( unless you use a preposition like I ate 4 OF the fish أكلت 4 من السمك ) . So, to recap with another example "ورق" (CGN) means paper (in general), if I say "ورقات or أوراق" (normal plural) I mean (sheets of paper), the singular is (CGN+ ة ) = ورقة (a sheet of paper). And finally, another difference between the two is that All (non-human) plurals take singular feminine pronouns (exهذه سمكات) All CGNs take singular masculine pronouns (exهذا سمك)"

No, "falyaSumhu" refers to "Al-Shahr". It can't be correct. If we look at the start of 2185 we'll see شَهْرُ رَمَضَانَ الَّذِي أُنزِلَ فِيهِ الْقُرْآنُ هُدًى لِّلنَّاسِ وَبَيِّنَاتٍ مِّنَ الْهُدَىٰ وَالْفُرْقَانِ, meaning shehru rameDaane is that in which was unzile el-qur'aan, guidance for the people and explanations from the guidance and el-furqaan. Here, we can ask ourselves what's the topic? It can be shehru rameDaane, but it also can be el-qur'aan, since it's the subject of a passive verb unzile, it depends on what follows. Then we have فَمَن شَهِدَ مِنكُمُ الشَّهْرَ so, who of you witnessed eš-šehr. Here we can be sure that shehru rameDaane is not the subject of this aayet, because it would be told something like so, who of you witnessed IT (hu). Btw, nobody can witness any of Moon phases, we can see them, but cannot witnessed them, because we can witness something happening not the object (we cannot witness a blue house). Eš-šehr is used because we know which šehr is it about (šehru rameDaane). Then we have فَلْيَصُمْهُ. This is not an imperative, it's a jussive mood which has a function to explain or to add something about things told and it's timeless, can be used for any time. Pronoun -hu here refers to the Qur'an, since the Qur'an is the topic and the reason for Siyaam ("fasting&quot. Note that "to fast" comes from the meaning "attached to something". Fe-l-yeSum-hu means that one who witnessed eš-šehr surely fasted it, meaning the Qur'an. Morever, šehru rameDaane is "revelation of lasting remedy", and who was present (witnessed) when something revealed to Resulullah he surely was attached to the Qur'an. That person received it not only as a guidance, but also he got explanations from the Guidance and el-furqaan (as said), thus by witnessing this event he got all he needs from the Qur'an. This event is one of many, for a certain portion of the Qur'an. If one is always present at all these events he has no need to fast, but if he was absent due to travelling or being sick, then he'll fast some other day. What he should do? He should try to get (that portion of) the Qur'an as guidance and explanations of the guidance and el-furqaan, by fasting, meaning focusing/attaching on the Qur'an only. In relation with the main topic here... We have 3 words from the root šeen-ha-ra šehr, šuhoor and ešhur. Due to the root meaning, these words can be connected with Moon and its phases, since they can describe revealing of something, for example the Moon during its phases. I understand that šehr can mean one of phases, and šuhoor is its plural. Ešhur is not so-called "broken plural", but can be a collective noun for all the phases, thus can mean "lunar month", as well as "lunar months", since this word doesn't have number (as, for example, enfus can be used as one or many). But "Moon phase(s)/month(s)" is just one of the meanings of these words in the Qur'an. They talk about revealing, making public, famous, etc.

Thanks Emre and Mohammad for your insightful opinion. and as I said am not in or out of this concept of miracle but it is an interesting topic for me. I hope i will not be judged by the almighty if i have interpreted some miracle related verses in one or another. The definition of miracle as per google is an extraordinary and welcome event that is not explicable by natural or scientific laws and is therefore attributed to a divine agency. So for sure we look at ourselves and we see a miracle.. we see a seed a tiny object and just mix with soil and water and become a tree. the sun, moon, the universe and its creation and the creation of adam and others indeed are in same category. What I want to understand is that when things are set in motion and laws were created by almighty then surely he can break those laws but my observation is that why these have stopped happening since man is able to record audio and videos of events? Miracle of such a level which is not related to a prophet (if we were to believed these were attributed of prophet) but to common man, why not happening now because if they do, it would be a big news. yes people claimed miraculous things but its only a claim and in todays modern times we have the capacity to record everything yet these so called personal claims never proven. I give you one example Traditional translation of the verse 2259 Or as the one who passed by a township which had fallen into ruin. He said, “How will Allah bring this to life after its death?” So Allah caused him to die for a hundred years; then He revived him. He said, “How long have you remained?” The man said, “I have remained a day or part of a day.” He said, “Rather, you have remained one hundred years. Look at your food and your drink; it has not changed with time. And look at your donkey; and We will make you a sign for the people. And look at the bones – how We raise them and then We cover them with flesh.” And when it became clear to him, he said, “I know that Allah is over all things competent.” So I am sure God may have also tried to give examples to explain his message not that it literally happened. Because God can do anything but god has put in motion this universe in his laws until a certain period of time. I again find GA Pevez explanation more logical (not that God cannot do such an event thats not the point here[ (From Laws relating to an individual’s life and death We now move to the Laws relating to the life and death of nations.) As is known in history, after the destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar, the Bani-Isr’ael lived in captivity for about a hundred years. Then they were liberated and re-established in Jerusalem. This story has been narrated in the Quran symbolically as follows A person passing through a ruined habitation asked if such a devastated place could have new life. Allah kept him in a death-like state for a hundred years, then gave him new life and asked him “How long have you remained in this state?” He replied “May be a day or so.” Allah said to him “You have been in this state for a hundred years but your food and drink has not gone bad and your ass is still standing as before. You should also reflect upon the process by which man develops from the embryonic state to where he becomes a living human being.” When the passer-by had reflected upon the parable, he said “Now I can understand how Allah can give life to dead nations.” Thanks Topic is entirely different though it was miracle.. So let's stick with topic.. Anyways God has given reason as under.. 1759 "And nothing has prevented Us from sending Miracles/ Signs except that the former peoples denied them. And We gave Thamud the she-camel as a visible sign, but they wronged her. And We send not the signs except as a warning" 'Aya' here is definitely Miracles not verses since God is sending verses with Quran..

Thanks to both of you. Peace

I understand that Iblees was of el-melaa'ika and was jinn, but I understand these words different in this context. I understand that all of this happened at the beginning of history, which is the start of literacy, approximately 4000 BC. El-melaa'iket were the ruling class in Egypt, known as Dynasty 0, since they were rulers before first dynasty. Aadem was a common man, which Aadem means. Iblees was of jinn, meaning strangers. There was a person known to Greeks as Belus, king of Egypt, and I think that it was him. He was expelled from Egypt and went to the area where Babylon was later established. Probably it was his original homeland, since he was a stranger. He was a leader of Chaldeans, which resembles khalidoon, used as SheyTaan's trick on Aadem and his "wife". Chaldeans, thus, were the priest-class in Egypt. This means that Aadem, as a common man, had a wish to be, with his "wife", ruler (melek) or, at least, to be of el-khaalidoon (ie. Chaldeans). SheyTaan took their hidden desires and brought them on the surface after they tasted from the "tree", which I understand as cannabis or something similar.

As I said if Allah forgives a person then it is real forgivenss... No human knows that Allah has pardon or not ... We all live with hopes... God knows those who reformed and maintain .. According to the context of verses Allah talks about 244 in 245...but remember anyone can reform... Once reformed and do righteous good deeds, all are same... If God doesn't accept true faith and true reforming then who can will accept... The one who Forgives is full of Mercy.. Thank you... Salam jkhan, If the person repented, that is between him /her with God. But the question is can we get married to these persons. Lets it was proven by then community the person did commit these thing. I think they will reject on the basis of 243. You know how theses hadith mongers do. In my humble opinion I think if the person reformed publicly/repented publicly. Then we can marry these type of people, according to 245 This is just my opinion God bless

I said "As you translate", it's not the Qur'an questionable, but your translation in many ways. I mentioned funny one, but serious one would be an implication that Allah already made who will we be paired with, and He didn't. In case He already made our "mates" (as you said) then it's fait accompli and we cannot choose. Instead, He made ones we can mate/pair/couple with (potential) and we can choose. You deny that manifest fact that Zawj is not Pair... You saying Zawj is pair but it is not according to quran verse... Zawjain is pair... All your problem started when you took Zawj as pair but clear day light between and and pair... Thank you and ponder

Salam everyone, does anybody know good sources or articles to understand quran variants/qiraat from a quran only perspective. No ahadith. Also which qiraat/ recitation is accurate? Salam brother, Maybe this will be of interest https//youtu.be/_EEP3XpLwMc God bless

“Apparent contradiction” is the term I’ve seen other muslims use when refuting “contradictions” in the quran. Apparent means that it looks like a contradiction, it does not mean that it is.

Not as I know, especially in this case, where we have a conditional sentence (if... then) without "else". So, innemaa here is telling that there is not "else" part of a condition, or, in words, it means "only" (then, no else).

Yes, it is forbidden to marry a Christian who believes in the Trinity. It is forbidden to marry a Christian who ascribes divinity to Jesus or any other servant. It is also forbidden to marry a pantheistic Sufi who worships the universe and himself. Even on this forum there are pantheists who worship nature, for example, and it is haram to marry them. Peace

I recently come to this video from Hamza Abdul Malik https//youtu.be/zUwTpP4gN5Q and it force me to change my view to this subject. What do you think? I think we many a members discussed this topic comprehensively... Decide yourself ... https//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9610488.0

Let God judge that... let's work hard to be one of those in heaven in sha allah... But don't forget conventional Muslims reiterate only they go to heaven.. Inshallah I stopped trusting hadiths years ago, I don’t remember what they believe, if thats what they believe then that is a small minded point of view.